Canada Gazette, Part I, Volume 156, Number 11: GOVERNMENT NOTICES

March 12, 2022

DEPARTMENT OF CANADIAN HERITAGE

DEPARTMENT OF CANADIAN HERITAGE ACT

Notice of annual fee adjustment

Notice is hereby given that the Minister of Canadian Heritage, pursuant to sections 10 and 11(2) of the Department of Canadian Heritage Act and in compliance with sections 16 and 17 of the Service Fees Act, has revised fees for certain services provided by the Canadian Audio-Visual Certification Office (CAVCO).

The revised fees as of March 31, 2022, are listed below.

Table 1. Revised fees — Canadian Film or Video Production Tax Credit

Fee category	Fee as of March 31, 2022
Canadian film or video production certificate (Part A)	0.15% of eligible production cost
Certificate of completion (Part B)	0.15% of eligible production cost
Application for both certificates (Part A/B)	0.30% of eligible production cost (minimum: $208.06)
Amended certificate	$312.10
Certified copy	$100

Table 2. Revised fees — Film or Video Production Services Tax Credit

Fee category	Fee as of March 31, 2022
Accreditation certificate	$5201.77
Amended certificate	$1040.35
Certified copy	$100

The application fee for a Canadian film or video production certificate (0.15% of eligible production cost), the application fee for a certificate of completion (0.15% of eligible production cost), and the application fee if both certificates are requested at the same time (0.30% of eligible production cost) are exempt from an annual adjustment. These fees are based on a percentage of a production’s eligible production costs; therefore, they self-adjust for inflation.

The Canadian Film or Video Production Tax Credit (CPTC) and Film or Video Production Services Tax Credit (PSTC) certified copy fees ($100) are exempt from the annual fee adjustment, as they are considered “low-materiality fees” as per the Service Fees Act.

Any inquiries or comments about the revised fees can be directed to CAVCO, 1‑888‑433‑2200 (telephone) or bcpac-cavco@pch.gc.ca (email).

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Notice with respect to certain substances on the Revised In Commerce List, including biopolymers, plant extracts, mineral extracts, proteins, fats, animal extracts, waxes, and carbohydrates

Pursuant to paragraph 71(1)(b) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (hereinafter referred to as the “Act”), notice is hereby given that the Minister of the Environment requires, for the purpose of assessing whether the substances are toxic or are capable of becoming toxic, or whether to control or the manner in which to control substances, any person described in sections 2 to 3 of this notice to provide the information required in sections 5 to 10 that may be in their possession, or to which they would reasonably be expected to have access. This information is to be provided no later than September 14, 2022.

Responses to this notice shall be submitted to the Minister of the Environment using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada’s Single Window.

Pursuant to section 313 of the Act, any person who provides information in response to this notice may submit, with the information, a written request that the information or part of it be treated as confidential. Claims for confidentiality should only be made when the submitted information is confidential under Canadian law and the Act. Additional details can be found in the Approach to disclose confidential information and promote transparency in chemicals management.

Pursuant to subsection 71(4) of the Act, the Minister of the Environment may, on request in writing from any person to whom this notice applies, extend the time or times within which the person shall comply with this notice. The person seeking such extension shall submit, prior to the deadline, a request to the Minister of the Environment at the following email address: substances@ec.gc.ca.

Jacqueline Gonçalves
Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

Definitions

1. The definitions in this section apply in this notice.

“applicable product”

means a cosmetic, novel food, food additive, therapeutic product or natural health product subject to the Food and Drugs Act.

“cosmetic”,

as defined in the Food and Drugs Act, includes any substance or mixture of substances manufactured, sold or represented for use in cleansing, improving or altering the complexion, skin, hair or teeth, and includes deodorants and perfumes.

“food additive”,

as defined in section B.01.001 of Division 1 of Part B of the Food and Drug Regulations, means any substance the use of which results, or may reasonably be expected to result, in it or its by-products becoming a part of or affecting the characteristics of a food, but does not include

• (a) any nutritive material that is used, recognized or commonly sold as an article or ingredient of food;
• (b) vitamins, mineral nutrients and amino acids, other than those listed in the tables to Division 16 of Part B of the Food and Drug Regulations,
• (c) spices, seasonings, flavouring preparations, essential oils, oleoresins and natural extractives;
• (d) agricultural chemicals, other than those listed in the tables to Division 16 of Part B of the Food and Drug Regulations,
• (e) food packaging materials and components thereof; and
• (f) drugs recommended for administration to animals that may be consumed as food.

“natural health product”,

as defined in the Natural Health Products Regulations, means a substance set out in Schedule 1 of the Natural Health Products Regulations or a combination of substances in which all the medicinal ingredients are substances set out in Schedule 1 of the Natural Health Products Regulations, a homeopathic medicine or a traditional medicine, that is manufactured, sold or represented for use in

• (a) the diagnosis, treatment, mitigation or prevention of a disease, disorder or abnormal physical state or its symptoms in humans;
• (b) restoring or correcting organic functions in humans; or
• (c) modifying organic functions in humans, such as modifying those functions in a manner that maintains or promotes health.

However, a natural health product does not include a substance set out in Schedule 2 of the Natural Health Products Regulations, any combination of substances that includes a substance set out in Schedule 2 of the Natural Health Products Regulations or a homeopathic medicine or a traditional medicine that is or includes a substance set out in Schedule 2 of the Natural Health Products Regulations.

“naturally occurring substance”^{footnote 1}

means a substance that is derived from nature (including the land, water, atmosphere and life forms which naturally inhabit the earth) and is either

• (a) unprocessed or processed only by manual, mechanical or gravitational means; by dissolution in water; by flotation; or by heating solely to remove water; or
• (b) extracted from air by any means.

“novel food”,

as defined in Division 28 of Part B of the Food and Drug Regulations, means

• (a) a substance, including a microorganism, that does not have a history of safe use as a food;
• (b) a food that has been manufactured, prepared, preserved or packaged by a process that
  • (i) has not been previously applied to that food, and
  • (ii) causes the food to undergo a major change;^{footnote 2} and
• (c) a food that is derived from a plant, animal or microorganism that has been genetically modified such that
  • (i) the plant, animal or microorganism exhibits characteristics that were not previously observed in that plant, animal or microorganism,
  • (ii) the plant, animal or microorganism no longer exhibits characteristics that were previously observed in that plant, animal or microorganism, or
  • (iii) one or more characteristics of the plant, animal or microorganism no longer fall within the anticipated range for that plant, animal or microorganism.

“substance”

means any substance listed in Schedule 1 to this notice.

“substance identifier”

means

• (a) a Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS RN);^{footnote 3}
• (b) an Enzyme Commission (EC) Number assigned by the International Union of Biochemistry and Molecular Biology (IUBMB); or
• (c) an International Numbering System for Food Additives (INS) number.

“therapeutic product”,

as defined in the Food and Drugs Act, means a drug^{footnote 4} or device^{footnote 5} or any combination of drugs and devices, but does not include a natural health product within the meaning of the Natural Health Products Regulations.

Persons required to provide information

2. This notice applies to any person who, during the 2019 or 2020 calendar year

• (a) manufactured any substance
  • (i) in a total quantity greater than 100 kg; and
  • (ii) that is in, or is intended to be in, an applicable product; or
• (b) imported any substance
  • (i) in a total quantity greater than 100 kg; and
  • (ii) that is in, or is intended to be in, an applicable product.

3. The notice also applies to any person or class of persons that is the successor or assign of the persons identified in section 2.

Exclusions

4. This notice does not apply to a person who manufactured or imported a substance that

• (a) meets the definition of a naturally occurring substance;
• (b) is used solely as food, as defined under the Food and Drugs Act, that is intended for human consumption;
• (c) is only in transit through Canada;
• (d) is manufactured or imported for a use that is regulated under any Act or regulations other than the Food and Drugs Act; or
• (e) is a transient reaction intermediate, an incidental reaction product, an impurity, a contaminant or a partially unreacted material.

Information required

5. If the person subject to the notice owns more than one facility, a single response to the notice shall be submitted. The single response shall amalgamate the information from all facilities owned by the person for each applicable question in the notice.

6. Any person to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information:

• (a) the name of the person (e.g. organization name);
• (b) the address;
• (c) the Federal Business Number;^{footnote 6}
• (d) the name, email and phone number of an individual authorized to act on behalf of the person; and
• (e) a declaration that the information is accurate and complete.

7. For each substance that the person manufactured or imported that is in, or is intended to be in, an applicable product, the person to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information for the 2019 and 2020 calendar years:

• (a) the total quantity manufactured in kilograms
  • (i) if the substance was manufactured at more than one facility, the person shall also provide the highest quantity manufactured at a single facility annually;
• (b) the total quantity imported alone in kilograms;
• (c) the total quantity imported in applicable products in kilograms; and
• (d) the total quantity exported in kilograms.

8. For each substance used to produce an applicable product during the 2019 or 2020 calendar years, the person to whom this notice applies shall provide the highest annual quantity, in kilograms, used at a single facility.

9. For each substance that the person imported in an applicable product, or used to produce an applicable product during the 2019 or 2020 calendar years, the person to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information for the known or anticipated applicable product for the 2019 and 2020 calendar years:

• (a) the substance identifier;
• (b) the Substance Function Codes set out in Schedule 2 that apply to the substance;
• (c) where code U999 is provided for paragraph 9(b), a written description of the substance function must be provided;
• (d) for each Substance Function Code provided, the Application Codes set out in Schedule 3 that describe the known or anticipated applicable product containing the substance; and
• (e) for each combination of Substance Function Code and Application Code:
  • (i) the concentration or range of concentrations of the substance by weight (w/w%) in the applicable product,
  • (ii) whether the applicable product is intended for use in commercial activities,
  • (iii) whether the applicable product is intended for use in consumer activities,
  • (iv) whether the applicable product is intended for use by or for children 14 years of age or younger, and
  • (v) a description of the known or anticipated applicable product.

10. For each substance that the person manufactured or imported for the purpose of distribution, the person to whom this notice applies shall provide the following information for the 2019 and 2020 calendar years:

• (a) the organization name and civic address of the five persons in Canada to whom the largest quantity of the substance greater than 100 kg was sold; and
• (b) the name, email address and phone number of a contact person for each organization provided in paragraph 10(a).

SCHEDULE 1

Substances

Substance identifier	Name of the substance
1.13.11.12	Linoleate:oxygen 13-oxidoreductase
3.1.1.73	4-Hydroxy-3-methoxycinnamoyl-sugar hydrolase
3.2.1.133	1,4-.alpha.-D-glucan.alpha.-maltohydrolase
3.2.1.6	3-(1→3;1→4)-.Beta-D-glucan 3(4)-glucanohydrolase
3.2.1.7	1.-Beta.-D-fructan fructanohydrolase
3.4.11	Aminopeptidase
3.4.21	Serine endopetidase
3.4.22.3	Ficin
5.3.1.9	D-Glucose-6-phosphate aldose-ketose-isomerase
344 (INS)	Lecithin Citrate
472b (INS)	Lactylated Mono- and Diglycerides
473 (INS)	Sucrose esters of fatty acids
60-92-4	Adenosine, cyclic 3′,5′-(hydrogen phosphate)
65-22-5	4-Pyridinecarboxaldehyde, 3-hydroxy-5-(hydroxymethyl)-2-methyl-, hydrochloride (1:1)
65-71-4	2,4(1H,3H)-Pyrimidinedione, 5-methyl-
65-82-7	L-Methionine, N-acetyl-
83-46-5	Stigmast-5-en-3-ol, (3-.beta.)-
83-48-7	Stigmasta-5,22-dien-3-ol, (3.beta.,22E)-
83-67-0	1H-Purine-2,6-dione, 3,7-dihydro-3,7-dimethyl-
85-61-0	Coenzyme A
87-99-0	Xylitol
92-13-7	2(3H)-Furanone, 3-ethyldihydro-4-[(1-methyl-1H-imidazol-5-yl)methyl]-, (3S,4R)-
126-44-3	1,2,3-Propanetricarboxylic acid, 2-hydroxy-, ion(3-)
127-40-2	.beta.,.Epsilon.-Carotene-3,3′-diol, (3R,3′R,6′R)-
146-14-5	Riboflavin 5′-​(trihydrogen diphosphate), P′→5′-ester with adenosine
302-27-2	Aconitane-3,8,13,14,15-pentol, 20-ethyl-1,6,16-trimethoxy-4-(methoxymethyl)-, 8-acetate 14-benzoate, (1.alpha.,3.alpha.,6.alpha.,14.alpha.,15.alpha.,16.beta.)-
458-88-8	Piperidine, 2-propyl-, (2S)-
464-92-6	Urs-12-en-28-oic acid, 2,3,23-trihydroxy-, (2.alpha., 3.beta.,4.alpha.)-
472-11-7	Spirost-5-ene-1,3-diol, (1.beta.,3.beta.,25R)-
474-62-4	Ergost-5-en-3-ol, (3.beta.,24R)-
484-33-3	1,3-Propanedione, 1-(4-methoxy-5-benzofuranyl)-3-phenyl-
487-26-3	4H-1-Benzopyran-4-one, 2,3-dihydro-2-phenyl-
488-43-7	1-Amino-1-deoxy-D-glucitol
495-69-2	Glycine, N-benzoyl-
497-30-3	1H-Imidazole-4-ethanaminium, .alpha.-carboxy-2,3-dihydro-N,N,N-trimethyl-2-thioxo-, inner salt, (.alpha.S)-
497-76-7	.beta.-D-Glucopyranoside, 4-hydroxyphenyl
506-03-6	1,2-Propanediol, 3-(hexadecyloxy)-, (2S)-
517-88-4	1,4-Naphthalenedione, 5,8-dihydroxy-2-[(1S)-1-hydroxy-4-methyl-3-penten-1-yl]-
520-18-3	4H-1-Benzopyran-4-one, 3,5,7-trihydroxy-2-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-
520-26-3	4H-1-Benzopyran-4-one,7-[[6-O-(6-deoxy-.alpha.-L-mannopyranosyl)-.beta.-D-glucopyranosyl]oxy]-2,3-dihydro-5-hydroxy-2-(3-hydroxy-4-methoxyphenyl)-,(S)-
525-82-6	4H-1-Benzopyran-4-one, 2-phenyl-
532-40-1	Thiazolium, 3-[(4-amino-2-methyl-5-pyrimidinyl)methyl]-4-methyl-5-[2-(phosphonooxy)ethyl]-, chloride (1:1)
552-12-5	D-Galactopyranuronic acid
555-44-2	Hexadecanoic acid, 1,1′,1″-(1,2,3-propanetriyl) ester
563-72-4	Ethanedioic acid, calcium salt (1:1)
576-37-4	Glucuronic acid
589-68-4	Tetradecanoic acid, 2,3-dihydroxypropyl ester
635-38-1	Hexadecanoic acid, [3-hydroxy-2-methyl-5-[[(1-oxohexadecyl)oxy]methyl]-4-pyridinyl]methyl ester
635-39-2	6H-Purin-6-one, 2-amino-1,9-dihydro-, hydrochloride (1:1)
676-46-0	Butanedioic acid, 2-hydroxy-, sodium salt (1:2)
685-73-4	D-Galacturonic acid
1077-27-6	1,2-Dithiolane-3-pentanoic acid, (3S)-
1115-47-5	Methionine, N-acetyl-
1135-24-6	2-Propenoic acid, 3-(4-hydroxy-3-methoxyphenyl)-
1200-22-2	1,2-Dithiolane-3-pentanoic acid, (3R)-
1302-27-8	Biotite ((Fe0.4-0.8Mg0.2-0.6)3K(Si3Al)[(OH)0.5-1F0-0.5]2O10)
1306-04-3	Chlorapatite (Ca5Cl(PO4)3)
1306-05-4	Fluorapatite (Ca5F(PO4)3)
1317-57-3	Glauconite ([(Al0-1Fe0-1)1.33Mg0.67]K(Si3.67Al0.33)(OH)2O10)
1318-02-1	Zeolites
1337-76-4	Palygorskite ([Mg(Al0.5-1Fe0-0.5)]Si4(OH)O10.4H2O)
1337-89-9	1-Phenanthrenecarboxylic acid, 1,2,3,4,4a,4b,5,6,10,10a-decahydro-1,4a-dimethyl-7-(1-methylethyl)-, (1R,4aR,4bR,10aR)-, ester with 1,2,3-propanetriol
1398-61-4	Chitin
1401-54-3	Naphtho[1,2-b]furan-2(3H)-one, decahydro-6,9a-dihydroxy-5a-methyl-3,9-bis(methylene)-, (3aS,5aS,6R,9aR,9bS)-
1406-66-2	Tocopherols
1555-53-9	9-Octadecenoic acid (9Z)-, magnesium salt (2:1)
1724-14-7	Erythro-Pentose, 2-deoxy-
1935-18-8	1-Butanaminium, 4-hydroxy-N,N,N-trimethyl-4-oxo-2-[(1-oxohexadecyl)oxy]-, inner salt
2364-67-2	1-Propanaminium, 3-carboxy-N,N,N-trimethyl-2-[(1-oxohexadecyl)oxy]-, inner salt, (2R)-
2420-56-6	10,12-Octadecadienoic acid, (10E,12Z)-
2495-84-3	L-Ascorbic acid, 6-(9Z)-9-octadecenoate
2540-56-9	9,11-Octadecadienoic acid, (9Z,11E)-
2937-54-4	Ethanesulfonothioic acid, 2-amino-
3130-87-8	Asparagine
3164-34-9	Butanedioic acid, 2,3-dihydroxy- [R-(R*,R*)]-, calcium salt (1:1)
3211-76-5	Butanoic acid, 2-amino-4-(methylseleno)-,(2S)-
3792-50-5	L-Aspartic acid, sodium salt (1:1)
4492-73-3	1H-Thieno[3,4-d]imidazole-4-pentanoic acid, hexahydro-2-oxo-, (3aS,4S,6aR)-, compd. with N-(2,5-dioxo-4-imidazolidinyl)urea (1:1)
4827-59-2	Olean-12-en-29-oic acid, 11-oxo-3-[(1-oxooctadecyl)oxy]-, (3.beta.,20.beta.)-
4934-42-3	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranuronic acid, monosodium salt
5119-24-4	Galactopyranuronic acid, compd. with allantoin (1:1)
5819-47-6	5-Pyrrolidinecarboxylic acid, 2-oxo-, magnesium salt (1:1)
5985-99-9	Piperidine, 2-propyl-, (2R)-
6145-69-3	1,2-Propanediol, 3-(hexadecyloxy)-
6217-54-5	4,7,10,13,16,19-Docosahexaenoic acid, (4Z,7Z,10Z,13Z,16Z,19Z)-
6556-12-3	D-Glucuronic acid
6899-04-3	Glutamine
6916-74-1	Docosanoic acid, 2,3-dihydroxypropyl ester
6949-98-0	Hexadecanoic acid, 9,10,16-trihydroxy-
7085-55-4	4H-1-Benzopyran-4-one, 2-[3,4-bis(2-hydroxyethoxy)phenyl]-3-[[6-O-(6-deoxy-.alpha.-L-mannopyranosyl)-.beta.-D-glucopyranosyl]oxy]-5-hydroxy-7-(2-hydroxyethoxy)-
7400-08-0	2-Propenoic acid, 3-(4-hydroxpheyl)-
7440-56-4	Germanium
7541-59-5	1,2,3,4-Butanetetrol
7659-95-2	2,6-Pyridinedicarboxylic acid, 4-[2-[(2S)-2-carboxy-5(.beta.-D-glucopyranosyloxy)-2,3-dihydro-6-hydroxy-1H-indol-1-yl]ethenyl]-2,3-dihydro-, (2S)-
7675-83-4	L-Aspartic acid, compd. with L-arginine (1:1)
7681-93-8	6,11,28-Trioxatricyclo[22.3.1.05,7]octacosa-8,14,16,18,20-pentaene-25-carboxylic acid, 22-[(3-amino-3,6-dideoxy-b-D-mannopyranosyl)oxy]-1,3,26-trihydroxy-12-methyl-10-oxo-, (1R,3S,5R,7R,8E,12R,14E,16E,18E,20E,22R,24S,25R,26S)-
7704-71-4	2-Butenedioic acid (2E)-, magnesium salt (1:?)
7704-72-5	2-Butenedioic acid (2E)-, potassium salt (1:?)
7704-73-6	2-Butenedioic acid (2E)-, sodium salt (1:?)
7718-51-6	2-Butenedioic acid (2E)-, calcium salt (1:?)
7757-81-5	2,4-Hexadienoic acid, sodium salt (1:1), (2E,4E)-
7776-28-5	Myo-Inositol, hexakis(dihydrogen phosphate), calcium salt (1:6)
8000-26-8	Oils, pine needle
8001-27-2	Hirudin
8001-98-7	1,4-Naphthoquinone, 5,8-dihydroxy-6-(1-hydroxy-4-methyl-3-pentenyl)-, (-)- )
8005-33-2	C.I. Natural Black 1
8007-48-5	Oils, sweet bay
8013-00-1	Terpinene
8016-14-6	Fats and Glyceridic oils, fish, hydrogenated
8016-24-8	Oils, hemp seed
8016-55-5	Rhubarb, ext.
8026-99-1	Oils, lime, sweet
8027-43-8	Oils, birch bud
8027-93-8	Carbonic acid, dipotassium salt, sulfurized
8028-45-3	Glycerides, oxidized
8049-47-6	Pancreatin
8049-84-1	C.I. Natural Green 3
8049-97-6	Melanins
8050-05-3	Milk Preparations, Yogurt
8050-30-4	Wood rosin, ester with 1,2,3-propanetriol
8054-39-5	Onion, ext.
8057-54-3	Thymus gland, ext.
8057-61-2	Kidney, ext.
9000-02-6	Amber
9000-20-8	Kino, eucalyptus
9000-21-9	Furcellaran
9000-57-1	Resins, sandarac
9000-58-2	Resins, scammony
9001-28-9	Blood-coagulation factor IX
9001-63-2	Lysozyme
9001-77-8	Phosphatase, acid
9008-02-0	Hemoglobins
9008-30-4	Lysophosphatidylcholines
9010-66-6	Zeins
9024-52-6	Aldolase, fructose diphosphate
9025-35-8	Galactosidase, .alpha.-
9036-66-2	D-Galacto-L-arabinan
9036-88-8	D-Mannan
9041-22-9	.beta.-D-Glucan
9042-14-2	Dextran, hydrogen sulfate
9045-23-2	Lactoglobulins, .beta-
9046-38-2	D-Galacturonan
9048-49-1	Human albumin
9050-90-2	.beta.-D-Glucan, (1→3)-
9051-97-2	.beta.-D-Glucan, (1→3)-
9052-00-0	.beta.-D-Glucan, (1→3)-
9061-82-9	Carrageenan, sodium salt
9074-78-6	.alpha.-D-Glucan
9079-02-1	Natto Gum
10025-06-6	Glycine, N-methyl-, (9Z)-9-octadecen-1-yl ester
10028-15-6	Ozone
10417-94-4	5,8,11,14,17-Eicosapentaenoic acid, (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z,17Z)-
11029-12-2	Anthocyanins, grape
12068-50-7	Halloysite (Al2(Si2O7).2H2O)
12174-11-7	Palygorskite ([Mg(Al0.5-1Fe0-0.5)]Si4(OH)O10.4H2O)
12244-16-5	Endellite (Al2(Si2O7).4H2O)
12298-43-0	Halloysite (Al2(Si2O7).xH2O)
12417-86-6	Stevensite ((Ca0.33-0.5Na0-0.33)0.33Mg3(Si3.67Al0.33)(OH)2O10)
13832-70-7	Olean-12-en-29-oic acid, 3-hydroxy-11-oxo-, octadecyl ester, (3.beta.,20.beta.)-
14246-53-8	Glycine, N-(1-oxooctyl)-
14307-43-8	Butanedioic acid, 2,3-dihydroxy- (2R,3R)-, ammonium salt (1:?)
14798-03-9	Ammonium
14832-91-8	Amethyst (SiO2)
14932-42-4	Xenon, isotope of mass 133
14982-50-4	Galacturonic acid
14984-34-0	D-Glucuronic acid, monosodium salt
16389-88-1	Dolomite (CaMg(CO3)2)
16816-67-4	Butanamide, N,N′-[dithiobis[2,1-ethanediylimino(3-oxo-3,1-propanediyl)]]bis[2,4-dihydroxy-3,3-dimethyl-, (2R,2′R)-
16830-15-2	Urs-12-en-28-oic acid, 2,3,23-trihydroxy-, O-6-deoxy-.alpha.-L-mannopyranosyl-(1→4)-O-.beta,-D-glucopyranosyl-1→6)-.beta,-D-glucopyranosy ester, (2.alpha.,3.beta.,4.alpha.)-
16887-00-6	Chloride
16941-32-5	Glucagon
16984-36-4	D-Glucopyranose, 4-O-.alpha.-D-glucopyranosyl-
17407-37-3	Butanedioic acid, 1-[3,4-dihydro-2,5,7,8-tetramethyl-2-(4,8,12-trimethyltridecyl)-2H-1-benzopyran-6-yl] ester
17941-34-3	Hexadecanoic acid, 9,10,16-trihydroxy-, (9R,10R)-rel-
22608-11-3	1,6-Heptadiene-3,5-dione, 1-(4-hydroxy-3-methoxyphenyl)-7-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-, (1E,6E)-
23444-65-7	1,4-Naphthoquinone, 5,8-dihydroxy-6-(1-hydroxy-4-methyl-3-pentenyl)-, (-)- )
24967-93-9	Chondroitin, 4-(hydrogen sulfate)
25104-18-1	L-Lysine, homopolymer
25167-62-8	Docosahexaenoic acid
25249-06-3	D-Galacturonic acid, homopolymer
25339-99-5	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranoside, .beta.-D-fructofuranosyl, monododecanoate
25378-27-2	Eicosapentaenoic acid
25395-66-8	L-Ascorbic acid, monooctadecanoate
26100-51-6	Propanoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, homopolymer
26317-27-1	Cuprate(3-), [(7S,8S)-3-carboxy-5-(carboxymethyl)-13-ethenyl-18-ethyl-7,8-dihydro-2,8,12,17-tetramethyl-21H,23H-porphine-7-propanoato(5-)-.kappa.N21,.kappa.N22,.kappa.N23,.kappa.N24]-, trihydrogen, (SP-4-2)-
26402-26-6	Octanoic acid, monoester with 1,2,3-propanetriol
26446-38-8	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranoside,.beta.-D-fructofuranosyl, monohexadecanoate
26499-65-0	Plaster of Paris (Ca(SO4).1/2H2O)
26566-61-0	Galactose
27214-38-6	Tetradecanoic acid, monoester with 1,2,3-propanetriol
27321-72-8	Stearic acid, monoester with triglycerol
27836-64-2	D-Glucopyranoside, dodecyl
27876-94-4	2,4,6,8,10,12,14-Hexadecaheptaenedioic acid, 2,6,11,15-tetramethyl-, (2E,4E,6E,8E,10E,12E,14E)-
27923-63-3	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranoside, .beta.-D-fructofuranosyl, trioctadecanoate
28302-36-5	Cuprate(3-), [(7S,8S)-3-carboxy-5-(carboxymethyl)-13-ethenyl-18-ethyl-17-formyl-7,8-dihydro-2,8,12-trimethyl-21H,23H-porphine-7-propanoato(5-)-.kappa.N21,.kappa.N22,.kappa.N23,.kappa.N24]-, sodium (1:3), (SP-4-2)-
28371-16-6	9(10H)-Anthracenone, 10-.beta.-D-glucopyranosyl-1,8-dihydroxy-3-(hydroxymethyl)-, (10R)-
28474-90-0	L-Ascorbic acid, dihexadecanoate
28874-51-3	L-Proline, 5-oxo-, sodium salt (1:1)
29923-31-7	L-Glutamic acid, N-(1-oxododecyl)-, sodium salt (1:1)
30364-51-3	Glycine, N-methyl-N-(1-oxotetradecyl)-, sodium salt (1:1)
30657-38-6	L-Proline, 5-oxo-, compd. with L-lysine (1:1)
31229-74-0	Hexadecanoic acid, diester with 5-hydroxy-6-methyl-3,4-pyridinedimethanol
31511-30-5	4H-1-Benzopyran-4-one, 3-[[6-O-(6-deoxy-.alpha.-L-mannopyranosyl)-.beta.-D-glucopyranosyl]oxy]-2-(3,4-dihydroxyphenyl)-5,7-dihydroxy-, tris(2-hydroxyethyl) ether
31667-87-5	.beta.-D-Glucan, (1→3)-
31799-91-4	Hyaluronic acid, potassium salt
32839-18-2	Docosahexaenoic acid, (Z,Z,Z,Z,Z,Z)-
32839-30-8	Eicosapentaenoic acid, (Z,Z,Z,Z,Z)-
33171-05-0	1,6-Heptadiene-3,5-dione, 1,7-bis(4-hydroxyphenyl)-, (1E,6E)-
33171-16-3	1,6-Heptadiene-3,5-dione, 1-(4-hydroxy-3-methoxyphenyl)-7-(4-hydroxyphenyl)-, (1E,6E)-
33735-91-0	6H-Purin-6-one, 2-amino-1,7-dihydro-, hydrochloride
34466-20-1	Ribose
35230-14-9	Propanoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, octadecyl ester
35474-99-8	5,8,11,14-Eicosatetraenoic acid, 2,3-dihydroxypropyl ester, (5Z,8Z,11Z,14Z)-
35554-44-0	1H-Imidazole, 1-[2-(2,4-dichlorophenyl)-2-(2-propen-1-yloxy)ethyl]-
35700-23-3	Prosta-5,13-dien-1-oic acid, 9,11,15-trihydroxy-15-methyl-, (5Z,9.alpha.,11.alpha.,13E,15S)-
36062-04-1	3,5-Heptanedione, 1,7-bis(4-hydroxy-3-methoxyphenyl)-
36393-20-1	Zincate(2-), bis[L-aspartato(2-)-.kappa.N,.kappa.O1]-, dihydrogen, (T-4)-
36655-86-4	D-Glucuronic acid, homopolymer
37259-53-3	Lyase, hyaluronate
37266-93-6	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranoside, .beta.-D-fructofuranosyl, dodecanoate
37288-34-9	Hyaluronoglucuronidase
37288-39-4	Glucosidase, sucrose .alpha.-
37316-87-3	Blood-coagulation factor IXa
37318-79-9	Sorbitan, (9Z)-9-octadecenoate
37326-33-3	Hyaluronoglucosaminidase
37361-00-5	.beta.-D-Glucan, (1→6)-
38079-62-8	L-Glutamic acid, N-(1-oxooctadecyl)-, sodium salt (1:2)
39012-86-7	1,3(2H,9bH)-Dibenzofurandione, 2,6-diacetyl-7,9-dihydroxy-8,9b-dimethyl-, sodium salt
39175-72-9	1,2,3-Propanetricarboxylic acid, 2-hydroxy-, ester with 1,2,3-propanetriol monooctadecanoate (1:1)
39300-95-3	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranoside, .beta.-D-fructofuranosyl, hexadecanoate
39346-84-4	Starch, dihydrogen phosphate, 2-hydroxypropyl ether
39404-33-6	Dextrates
39409-82-0	Carbonic acid, magnesium salt (1:1), mixt. with magnesium hydroxide (Mg(OH)2), hydrate
40031-31-0	2-Butanone, 1,3,4-trihydroxy-
42175-36-0	Propanoic acid, 2-hydroxy-, (9Z)-9-octadecenyl ester
42232-29-1	Hexadecanoic acid, dodecyl ester
42553-65-1	.beta.-D-Glucopyranose, 6-O-.beta.-D-glucopyranosyl-, 1,1′-[(2E,4E,6E,8E,10E,12E,14E)-2,6,11,15-tetramethyl-2,4,6,8,10,12,14-hexadecaheptaenedioate]
51033-30-8	Decanoic acid, monoester with triglycerol
51395-96-1	Mannan
51898-34-1	3-Pyridinecarboxylic acid, (2R)-3,4-dihydro-2,5,7,8-tetramethyl-2-[(4R,8R)-4,8,12-trimethyltridecyl]-2H-1-benzopyran-6-yl ester, rel-
51938-44-4	Sorbitan, octadecanoate (2:3)
52108-64-2	Chitin, 6-(carboxymethyl) ether
52315-75-0	L-Lysine, N6-(1-oxododecyl)-
53238-80-5	.beta.-d-Glucan, (1→3), (1→6) -
53850-34-3	Proteins, thaumatins
55306-04-2	Olean-12-en-28-oic acid, 2,3,19,23-tetrahydroxy-, .beta.-D-glucopyranosyl ester, (2.alpha.,3.beta.,4.beta.,19.alpha.)-
56272-24-3	Histidine, hydrochloride
57817-89-7	Kaur-16-en-18-oic acid, 13-[(2-O-.beta.-D-glucopyranosyl-.beta.-D-glucopyranosyl)oxy]-, .beta.-D-glucopyranosyl ester, (4.alpha.)-
58748-27-9	Fatty acids, C8-10, propylene esters
59272-74-1	Spiro[7H-benzo[de]quinoline-7,1′-cyclohexane]-4′,6-diol, 1,2,3,8,9,9a-hexahydro-5-methoxy-1-methyl-, (1′.alpha.,4′.beta.,9aR)-
60063-90-3	Ammonium carrageenan
60650-88-6	Sericin A
61788-55-4	Flavonoids, lemon oil
61789-08-0	Glycerides, soya mono-, hydrogenated
61789-25-1	Corn oil, ethoxylated
61789-88-6	Fatty acids, olive-oil, sodium salts
61789-89-7	Fatty acids, palm kernel-oil, sodium salts
61790-79-2	Fatty acids, palm-oil, sodium salts
64366-24-1	Carrageenan, potassium salt
65072-04-0	Alkaloids, Veratrum
66105-29-1	Glycerides, coco mono-, ethoxylated
67254-72-2	Fatty acids, castor-oil, esters with polyglycerol
67254-73-3	Glycerides, mixed mono- and di-
67784-87-6	Glycerides, palm-oil mono- and di-, hydrogenated
68155-26-0	Amides, vegetable-oil, N,N-bis(hydroxyethyl)
68187-30-4	L-Glutamic acid, N-coco acyl derivatives, disodium salts
68187-32-6	L-Glutamic acid, N-coco acyl derivs., monosodium salts
68333-16-4	Lactobacillus acidophilus
68424-38-4	Fatty acids, C16-18, sodium salts
68440-49-3	Peanut oil, ethoxylated
68459-67-6	Castor oil, ester with glycerol
68476-25-5	Feldspar-group minerals
68553-03-7	Glycerides, coco mono-, ethoxylated
68580-63-2	Octacosanol
68606-18-8	Glycerides, mixed coco, decanoyl and octanoyl
68606-81-5	Currant, Ribes nigrum, ext.
68650-43-1	Chicory, ext.
68783-34-6	Coconut oil, potassium salt
68920-03-6	Glycerides, C16-18 and C18-unsatd., deodorizer distillates
68938-15-8	Fatty acids, coco, hydrogenated
68938-32-9	Fatty acids, wheat germ-oil
68953-11-7	Amides, mink-oil, N-[3-(dimethylamino)propyl]
68953-55-9	Fats and glyceridic oils, vegetable, esters with polyglycerol
68990-51-2	Fatty acids, vegetable oil, esters with sterols mixed with vegetable-oil glycerides
68990-74-9	Dandelion, ext.
69071-70-1	Fats and glyceridic oils, apricot kernel, ethoxylated
70084-87-6	Glutens, enzyme-modified
70969-43-6	Fatty acids, palm kernel-oil, potassium salts
70983-91-4	Glutens, corn, hydrolyzed, sodium salt
71138-97-1	Cellulose, 2-hydroxypropyl methyl ether, acetate hydrogen butanedioate
71277-79-7	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranosiduronic acid, (3.beta.,20.beta.)-20-carboxy-11-oxo-30-norolean-12-en-3-yl 2-O-.beta.D-glucopyranuronosyl-, sodium salt (1:2)
72480-62-7	Oils, ginseng
72576-81-9	Tetradecanoic acid, isooctadecyl ester
72957-37-0	N2-(N-glycyl-L-histidyl)-L-lysine monoacetate
72968-47-9	Passionflower, Passiflora incarnata, ext.
73020-09-4	Oat gum
73296-98-7	Mate, ext.
74315-67-6	Amylopectin, 2-hydroxypropyl ether
79458-68-7	Lysine, compd. with S-(carboxymethyl)-L-cysteine (1:1)
79811-24-8	L-Glutamic acid, N-(1-oxooctadecyl)-, sodium salt (1:?)
81752-33-2	Isooctadecanoic acid, monoester with oxybis[propanediol]
82980-39-0	Glycerides, wheat germ-oil
83512-85-0	Chitosan, N-(carboxymethyl)
84012-19-1	Eggplant, ext.
84012-22-6	Hieracium pilosella, ext.
84012-31-7	Passionflower, Passiflora incarnata, ext.
84012-36-2	Polygonum bistorta, ext.
84012-38-4	Ruscus aculeatus, ext.
84082-55-3	Lupine, L. albus, ext.
84082-59-7	Mate, ext.
84082-60-0	Matricaria recutita, ext.
84082-61-1	Melissa officinalis ext.
84082-63-3	Menyanthes trifoliata, ext.
84082-68-8	Myristica fragrans, ext.
84603-54-3	Calluna vulgaris, ext.
84603-61-2	Hawthorn, Crataegus oxyacantha, ext.
84603-73-6	Laurus nobilis, ext.
84604-04-6	Polygonum aviculare, ext.
84604-07-9	Prunus serotina, ext.
84604-12-6	Rose, Rosa centifolia, ext.
84604-13-7	Rose, Rosa gallica, ext.
84604-15-9	Sabal serrulatum, ext.
84604-16-0	Saccharomyces cerevisiae, ext.
84604-17-1	Saffron, ext.
84604-20-6	Silybum marianum, ext.
84625-28-5	Ash (Fraxinus), F. excelsior, ext.
84625-36-5	Euphrasia officinalis, ext.
84625-39-8	Fennel ext.
84625-42-3	Galium aparine, ext.
84625-48-9	Rhamnus frangula, ext.
84649-82-1	Aloe ferox, ext.
84649-87-6	Arctium majus, ext.
84649-90-1	Asparagus, ext.
84649-91-2	Avens, Geum urbanum, ext.
84649-93-4	Barosma betulina, ext.
84649-96-7	Boldo, ext.
84649-98-9	Cinnamomum zeylanicum, ext.
84649-99-0	Cocoa, ext.
84650-07-7	Galega officinalis, ext.
84650-11-3	Geranium robertianum, ext.
84650-12-4	Ginseng, Panax pseudoginseng, ext.
84650-13-5	Guaiacum officinale, ext.
84650-18-0	Nepeta hederacea, ext.
84650-41-9	Pterocarpus santalinus, ext.
84650-55-5	Rhamnus purshiana, ext.
84681-71-0	Rape oil, hydrogenated
84695-94-3	Alchemilla vulgaris, ext.
84695-96-5	Ammi visnaga, ext.
84696-01-5	Cola nitida, ext.
84696-12-8	Eleutherococcus senticosus, ext.
84696-13-9	Fucus vesiculosus, ext.
84696-20-8	Horehound, ext.
84696-27-5	Nymphaea alba, ext.
84696-40-2	Pepper (piper), P. methysticum, ext.
84696-50-4	Solanum dulcamara, ext.
84696-51-5	Spearmint, ext.
84775-42-8	Anise, ext.
84775-50-8	Coriander, ext.
84775-51-9	Cumin, ext.
84775-54-2	Cypripedium calceolus pubescens, ext.
84775-57-5	Filipendula ulmaria, ext.
84775-63-3	Indigofera tinctoria, ext.
84775-71-3	Ocimum basilicum, ext.
84775-83-7	Salvia sclarea ext.
84775-94-0	Radish, ext.
84775-95-1	Rhatany, Krameria triandra, ext.
84775-96-2	Roselle, ext.
84776-25-0	Cetraria islandica, ext.
84776-26-1	Cimicifuga racemosa, ext.
84776-30-7	Combretum micranthum, ext.
84776-64-7	Jasmine, Jasminum grandiflorum, ext.
84787-64-4	Anacyclus pyrethrum, ext.
84787-66-6	Condurango, ext.
84787-71-3	Sanguisorba officinalis, ext.
84837-08-1	Aloe, ext.
84929-28-2	Guarana, ext.
84929-30-6	Lawsonia inermis alba, ext.
84929-34-0	Myrica cerifera, ext.
84929-35-1	Nepeta cataria, ext.
84929-42-0	Pine, Pinus maritima, ext.
84929-46-4	Ptychopetalum olacoides, ext.
84929-54-4	Viburnum prunifolium, ext.
84929-57-7	Allspice, ext.
84929-68-0	Morinda citrifolia, ext.
84929-75-9	Rhamnus frangula, ext.
84929-76-0	Rubus idaeus, ext.
84929-78-2	Strawberry, Fragaria vesca, ext.
84961-45-5	Ceratonia siliqua, ext.
84961-57-9	Pomegranate, ext.
84961-62-6	Tamarind, ext.
84961-64-8	Tanacetum vulgare, ext.
84988-87-4	Glycerides, vegetable oil
85005-44-3	Glycerides, lanolin
85085-21-8	Astragalus gummifer, ext.
85085-23-0	Beeswax, saponified
85085-31-0	Eriodictyon glutinosum, ext.
85085-34-3	Fir, Abies balsamea, ext.
85085-46-7	Lycium barbarum, ext.
85085-48-9	Melaleuca alternifolia, ext.
85085-51-4	Nelumbo nucifera, ext.
85085-54-7	Cyperus rotundus, ext.
85116-63-8	Aloysia triphylla, ext.
85116-74-1	Cerebrosides
85116-75-2	Hemlock (poison), ext.
85117-06-2	Goldenrod, Solidago virgaurea, ext.
85117-13-1	Quince, Cydonia oblonga, ext.
85186-76-1	Fatty acids, C14-18 and C18-unsatd., branched and linear, 2-ethylhexyl esters
85187-05-9	Senna, Cassia angustifolia, ext.
85251-63-4	Apple, Malus sylvestris,ext
85251-64-5	Barley, ext.
85251-65-6	Beech, Fagus sylvatica, ext.
85480-47-3	Acorus calamus, ext., hydrogenated
85536-07-8	Glycerides, C8-10 mono- and di-
85586-30-7	Glycerides, rape-oil mono-
85594-37-2	Grape, ext.
85711-58-6	Lecithins, hydrolyzed
85940-31-4	Caraway, ext.
85940-33-6	Carlina acaulis, ext.
85940-38-1	Ephedra sinica, ext.
86362-36-9	3-Pyridinecarboxylic acid, 3,4-dihydro-2,5,7,8-tetramethyl-2-(4,8,12-trimethyltridecyl)-2H-1-benzopyran-6-yl ester
88598-53-2	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranose, 2-deoxy-6-O-[2-deoxy-2-[[(3R)-1-oxo-3-[(1-oxododecyl)oxy]tetradecyl]amino]-3-O-[(3R)-1-oxo-3-[(1-oxotetradecyl)oxy]tetradecyl]-4-O-phosphono-.beta.-D-glucopyranosyl]-2-[[(3R)-3-hydroxy-1-oxotetradecyl]amino]-, 3-[(3R)-3-hydroxytetradecanoate]
88845-49-2	Furcellaran, calcium salt
89957-43-7	Annatto tree, ext.
89957-45-9	Anthyllis vulneraria, ext.
89957-58-4	Artemisia abrotanum, ext.
89957-81-3	Avens, Geum rivale, ext.
89957-84-6	Barberry, Berberis aristata, ext.
89957-89-1	Beet, ext.
89957-90-4	Beet, red, ext.
89957-98-2	Boswellia carterii, ext.
89958-09-8	Buckwheat, ext.
89958-13-4	Cabbage, ext.
89958-29-2	Carnation, Dianthus caryophyllus, ext.
89997-35-3	Celery, ext.
89997-53-5	Cherry, sour, ext.
89997-65-9	Chrysanthemum parthenium, ext.
89997-82-0	Cola acuminata, ext.
89997-84-2	Collinsonia canadensis, ext.
89997-98-8	Crithmum maritimum, ext.
89998-03-8	Cucurbita pepo, ext.
90027-90-0	Date, ext.
90028-03-8	Dill, ext.
90028-20-9	Echinacea purpurea, ext.
90028-31-2	Epilobium angustifolium, ext.
90028-32-3	Equisetum hyemale, ext.
90028-68-5	Evernia prunastri, ext.
90045-23-1	Garcinia cambogia, ext.
90045-46-8	Guava, Psidium guajava pyrifera, ext.
90045-52-6	Hawthorn, Crataegus monogyna, ext.
90045-73-1	Hirudo medicinalis, ext.
90045-89-9	Iris germanica florentina, ext.
90045-98-0	Jojoba, ext.
90045-99-1	Jujube, Zizyphus jujuba, ext.
90046-08-5	Knautia arvensis, ext.
90046-12-1	Laminaria digitata, ext.
90063-39-1	Ledum palustre, ext.
90063-40-4	Lentil, ext.
90063-50-6	Lilac, Syringa vulgaris, ext.
90063-53-9	Linden, Tilia americana, ext.
90063-56-2	Linden, Tilia vulgaris, ext.
90063-58-4	Lithospermum officinale, ext.
90063-83-5	Mandarin orange, tangerine, ext.
90063-86-8	Mango, ext.
90063-92-6	Melia azedarach, ext.
90063-96-0	Mentha aquatica, ext.
90063-97-1	Mentha arvensis, ext.
90064-01-0	Spearmint, ext.
90064-03-2	Mercurialis perennis, ext.
90064-11-2	Mulberry, Morus nigra, ext.
90064-35-0	Nymphaea odorata, ext.
90082-21-6	Opuntia ficus-indica, ext.
90082-36-3	Panicum miliaceum, ext.
90082-41-0	Pea, ext.
90082-59-0	Pepper (piper), P. cubeba, ext.
90082-75-0	Pine, Pinus pinaster, ext.
90082-77-2	Pine, Pinus strobus, ext.
90082-86-3	Plantain, Plantago ovata, ext.
90082-87-4	Plum, ext.
90082-95-4	Polygala senega latifolia, ext.
90083-08-2	Potato, ext.
90105-89-8	Prickly ash, ext.
90105-92-3	Prunella vulgaris, ext.
90106-13-1	Rauwolfia serpentina, ext.
90106-16-4	Reseda luteola, ext.
90106-20-0	Rhododendron chrysanthum, ext.
90106-33-5	Rhus glabra, ext.
90106-41-5	Rumex crispus, ext.
90106-48-2	Rye, ext.
90106-66-4	Scutellaria galericulata, ext.
90106-68-6	Sea buckthorn, Hippophae rhamnoides, ext.
90131-20-7	Sorbus domestica, ext.
90131-25-2	Spinach, ext.
90131-34-3	Stellaria media, ext.
90131-43-4	Tagetes erecta, ext.
90131-48-9	Terminalia chebula, ext.
90131-49-0	Terminalia sericea, ext.
90131-55-8	Teucrium scorodonia, ext.
90131-58-1	Thuya occidentalis, ext.
90131-68-3	Tribulus terrestris, ext
90147-43-6	Withania somnifera, ext.
90147-49-2	Yam, Dioscorea villosa, ext.
90147-58-3	Yucca filamentosa, ext.
90320-32-4	Alisma plantago, ext.
90320-42-6	Alpinia officinarum, ext.
90604-49-2	Sweetsop, ext.
90990-01-5	Connective tissue, ext.
90990-08-2	Fatty acids, C8-18
91031-63-9	Fatty acids, C16-18, magnesium salts
91052-49-2	Glycerides, C12-18 mono- and di-
91052-83-4	Glycerides, sunflower-oil mono- and di-, 2,3-bis(acetyloxy)butanedioates
91078-95-4	Fats and glyceridic oils, fish, hydrogenated
91079-91-3	Protein hydrolyzates, fish
91722-22-4	Sugarcane, ext.
91722-67-7	Larrea divaricata, ext.
91723-14-7	Glycerides, sunflower-oil mono-
91744-23-9	Glycerides, C16-18 and C18-unsatd. mono-, di- and tri-, citrates, potassium salts
91744-28-4	Glycerides, C12-18 di- and tri-
91744-32-0	Glycerides, C8-10 mono-, di- and tri-
91744-36-4	Glycerides, C16-18 mono-, di- and tri-, citrates
91744-38-6	Glycerides, C16-18 mono-, di- and tri-, hydrogenated, citrates, potassium salts
91744-48-8	Glycerides, lard mono-, di- and tri-, hydrogenated
91744-68-2	Glycerides, palm-oil mono-, di- and tri-, hydrogenated, citrates
91745-12-9	Adansonia digitata, ext.
91770-13-7	Hierochloe odorata, ext.
91770-19-3	Loquat, ext.
91770-22-8	Maple, Acer saccharum, ext.
91770-69-3	Spruce, Picea abies, ext.
91771-33-4	Bambusa vulgaris, ext.
91771-60-7	Cryptomeria japonica, ext.
91845-22-6	Helichrysum stoechas, ext.
91845-35-1	Ocimum sanctum, ext.
92128-82-0	Laminaria, ext.
92128-87-5	Lecithins, hydrogenated
92201-55-3	Cedrus atlantica, ext.
92202-01-2	Olive oil, reaction products with sorbitol
92346-80-0	Acanthopanax senticosus, ext.
92456-63-8	Actinidia chinensis, ext.
92456-72-9	Cassava, ext.
92457-01-7	Gardenia jasminoides, ext.
92457-12-0	Jojoba, ext., hydrogenated
92731-30-1	Mucopolysaccharides, heparinoids, duodenum, mucosa
92880-86-9	Furcellaran, potassium salt
92880-87-0	Furcellaran, sodium salt
93164-89-7	Bacopa monnieri, ext.
93165-11-8	Commiphora mukul, ext.
93384-25-9	Ledum groenlandicum, ext.
93384-34-0	Phospholipids, spinal cord
93384-40-8	Sage, Salvia hispanica, ext.
93571-82-5	Fatty acids, C6-24 and C16-18-unsatd., esters with sucrose
93572-53-3	Fats and Glyceridic oils, menhaden, hydrogenated
93685-96-2	Mimosa, ext.
93803-86-2	Isooctadecanoic acid, octyl ester
94089-18-6	Butanamide, 2,4-bis(acetyloxy)-N-[3-(acetyloxy)propyl]-3,3-dimethyl-, (2R)
94167-02-9	Fucus serratus, ext.
94167-04-1	Linden, Tilia tomentosa, ext.
94167-05-2	Mulberry, Morus alba, ext.
94279-95-5	Prunus africana, ext.
94279-99-9	Scutellaria baicalensis, ext.
94334-08-4	Hedychium flavum, ext.
94334-35-7	Tuberose, ext.
94349-62-9	Aloe barbasensis, ext.
94350-04-6	Protein hydrolyzates, flaxseed
94350-05-7	Protein hydrolyzates, rice bran
94350-06-8	Protein hydrolyzates, wheat germ
94465-74-4	Fomes officinalis, ext.
94465-78-8	Mytilus edulis, ext.
94465-79-9	Ostrea edulis, ext.
94551-75-4	Protein hydrolyzates, tuna
94944-92-0	Eggs, salmon, ext.
94945-01-4	Gelidium cartilagineum, ext.
95009-14-6	Agaricus bisporus, ext.
96352-58-8	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranoside, .beta.-D-fructofuranosyl O-.alpha.-D-galactopyranosyl-(1→6)-, (9Z)-9-octadecenoate
96507-89-0	Bifidobacterium longum, lysate
96507-91-4	Cardamom, Elettaria cardamomum miniscula, ext.
96690-56-1	Walnut, Juglans nigra, ext.
97281-48-6	Phosphatidylcholines, soya, hydrogenated
97281-59-9	Ulva lactuca, ext.
97488-92-1	Glycerides, vegetable-oil mono- and di-, hydrogenated
97615-94-6	Fish, ext.
97722-02-6	Glycerides, tall-oil mono-, di-, and tri-
97766-44-4	Swertia cordata, ext.
97952-72-2	Salai, ext.
98106-71-9	Mandarin orange, satsuma, ext.
98133-47-2	Butanamide, 2,4-bis(acetyloxy)-N-[3-(acetyloxy)propyl]-3,3-dimethyl-
99439-28-8	Quartz-beta (SiO2)
99924-37-5	Protein hydrolyzates, reticulin
100085-35-6	Protein hydrolyzates, fibronectin
100085-62-9	Protein hydrolyzates, microorganism
100209-19-6	Almond, ext., hydrolyzed
100209-41-4	Protein hydrolyzates, corn
100358-63-2	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranoside, .beta.-D-fructofuranosyl, [R-(Z)]-12-hydroxy-9-octadecenoate
100403-19-8	Ceramides
100684-25-1	Protein hydrolyzates, wheat gluten
100684-29-5	Glycerides, vegetable-oil, hydrogenated
101227-09-2	Fatty acids, C16-18, 2-hexyldecyl esters
101403-98-9	Fatty acids, palm kernel-oil
101993-72-0	Octadecanoic acid, ester with triglycerol
102785-61-5	Glauconite-1M
102785-62-6	Glauconite-2M1
102785-63-7	Glauconite-1Md
103213-20-3	Fatty acids, C18-unsatd., dimers, hydrogenated, di-iso-Pr esters
103819-44-9	Fats and glyceridic oils, avocado, ethoxylated
103819-46-1	Olive oil, ethoxylated
104673-29-2	Chitosan, N-(2-hydroxypropyl)
108778-82-1	Beractant
110780-72-8	Biotite-3A1 ((Fe0.4-0.8Mg0.2-0.6)3K(Si3Al)[(OH)0.5-1F0-0.5]2O10)
112593-95-0	Biotite-1M ((Fe0.4-0.8Mg0.2-0.6)3K(Si3Al)[(OH)0.5-1F0-0.5]2O10)
114733-90-3	Biotite-2M1 ((Fe0.4-0.8Mg0.2-0.6)3K(Si3Al)[(OH)0.5-1F0-0.5]2O10)
116768-20-8	Biotite-3T ((Fe0.4-0.8Mg0.2-0.6)3K(Si3Al)[(OH)0.5-1F0-0.5]2O10))
119068-78-9	Cholestane-3,7,12,24,26,27-hexol, 26-(hydrogen sulfate), sodium salt (1:1), (3.alpha.,5.beta.,7.alpha., 12.alpha.,24R,25S)-
122703-32-6	D-Glucopyranoside, methyl, di-(9Z)-9-octadecenoate
124046-21-5	Amides, avocado-oil, N,N-bis(hydroxyethyl)
124046-52-2	Palm kernel oil, ethoxylated
125804-16-2	Docosanoic acid, isooctadecyl ester
128446-33-3	.alpha.-Cyclodextrin, 2-hydroxypropyl ethers
129521-66-0	Lignite
129691-05-0	5,8,11,14-Eicosatetraenoic acid, 2,3-dihydroxypropyl ester
130381-06-5	Protein hydrolyzates, wheat germ, [3-(dodecyldimethylammonio)-2-hydroxypropyl], chlorides
130498-24-7	Limnanthes alba, ext.
133654-02-1	Decanoic acid, ester with triglycerol
134134-87-5	Proteins, oat
134324-28-0	Lactoferrin (cattle clone PM-8/PM-7 protein moiety reduced)
135236-72-5	Butanoic acid, 3-hydroxy-3-methyl-, calcium salt (2:1)
135507-00-5	Hyaluronic acid, dimethylsilyl ester
136097-93-3	Fatty acids, beeswax, monoesters with polyglycerol
138148-35-3	Butanamide, N,N′-[dithiobis[2,1-ethanediylimino(3-oxo-3,1-propanediyl)]]bis[2,4-dihydroxy-3,3-dimethyl-
143110-73-0	D-Glucose, 2-deoxy-6-O-[2-deoxy-2-[[(3R)-1-oxo-3[(1-oxododecyl)oxy]tetradecyl]amino]-3-O-[(3R)-1-oxo-3-[(1-oxotetradecyl)oxy]tetradecyl]-4-O-phosphono-.beta.-D-glucopyranosyl]-2-[[(3R)-1-oxo-3-[(1-oxohexadecyl)oxy]tetradecyl]amino]-
143193-85-5	1H-1,2,4-Triazole-1-ethanol,. alpha.-(2-fluorophenyl)-.alpha.-(4-fluorophenyl)-, mixt. with guazatine acetate
144514-51-2	Waxes and Waxy substances, orange
144635-07-4	Glycerides, butter-fat mono-, di- and tri-, oxidized
147732-56-7	L-Lysine, N-(1-oxohexadecyl)glycyl-L-histidyl-
151186-19-5	Lactoferrin (human precursor reduced)
151661-87-9	Protein hydrolyzates, oat
156715-50-3	Collagens, pro-
156798-12-8	Olive oil, unsaponifiables
158570-96-8	Fats and Glyceridic oils, emu, Dromaius novaehollandiae
160965-04-8	Brazil nut, ext.
161074-67-5	Glutens, hydrolyzates, reaction products with lauroyl chloride, sodium salts
163661-75-4	Lipids, sunflower
164250-88-8	Sunflower oil, oleic acid-high
167747-36-6	Fats and Glyceridic oils, mango kernel
168456-53-9	Poria cocos, ext.
169107-13-5	Fats and Glyceridic oils, Limnanthes alba seed
169590-62-9	Caseins, hydrolyzates, [2-hydroxy-3-(trimethylammonio)propyl], chlorides
172275-79-5	Starch, 1,3-dimethyl-2-oxo-4,5-imidazolidinediyl ether
180254-52-8	Glycerides, sunflower-oil mono-and-di,ethoxylated
185630-77-7	Fats and glyceridic oils, Limnanthes alba seed, ethoxylated
186511-05-7	Sunflower oil, ethoxylated
190524-47-1	Inulin, octadecanoate
192230-28-7	Irvingia gabonensis, ext.
199665-06-0	.beta.-D-Glucan, (1→3)-
202148-87-6	Acacia concinna, ext.
223266-93-1	.alpha.-D-Galacturono-6-deoxy-.alpha.-L-galacto-.beta.-D-galactan
223747-87-3	Argania spinosa, ext.
223748-41-2	Sapindus trifoliatus fruit ext.
223748-90-1	Lentinula edodes, ext.
223748-92-3	Cyperus esculentus, ext.
223749-33-5	Kigelia africana, ext.
223749-71-1	Quinoa, Chenopodium quinoa, ext.
223749-75-5	Ahnfeltia concinna, ext.
223749-83-5	Chlorella vulgaris, ext.
223749-88-0	Enteromorpha compressa, ext.
223751-71-1	Hypnea musciformis, ext.
223751-74-4	Rhodymenia palmata, ext.
223751-76-6	Porphyra umbilicalis, ext.
223751-78-8	Sargassum filipendula, ext.
223751-82-4	Ganoderma lucidum, ext.
225234-03-7	Fats and glyceridic oils, sea buckthorn, Hippophae rhamnoides
225234-07-1	Fats and glyceridic oils, Lupinus alba
225234-12-8	Fats and glyceridic oils, borage seed
225234-14-0	Fats and glyceridic oils, shea butter, unsaponifiable fraction
226995-92-2	Poly(oxy-1,2-ethanediyl), .alpha.-[2-[bis(2- aminoethyl)methylammonio]ethyl]-.omega.-hydroxy-, N,N′-di-Limnanthes alba seed-oil acyl derivs., Me sulfates (salts)
227025-08-3	Oat, hydrolyzed
227025-35-6	Protein hydrolyzates, egg shell membrane
241148-25-4	Oils, Calophyllum inophyllum
244023-79-8	Carrageen, ext.
244058-54-6	Pseudopterogorgia elisabethae, ext.
246865-89-4	Fats and glyceridic oils, coriander seed
247588-54-1	Fats and glyceridic oils, Pongamia glabra
299184-75-1	Oils, Argania spinosa
308063-77-6	Caseins, reaction products with diethylenetriamine
308066-66-2	Oligosaccharides, fructose-contg.
308067-58-5	Immune globulin G
308068-01-1	Jojoba oil, isomerizes
308069-41-2	Phospholipids, soya
313258-61-6	Fat and glyceridic oils, wheat germ
347174-92-9	Macrocystis pyrifera ext.
356065-50-4	Fats and glyceridic oils, Brazil nut
381718-28-1	Fats and glyceridic oils, Rubus idaeus
391900-47-3	Leontopodium alpinum, ext.
497227-50-6	Digoxin immune fab (ovine)
507454-10-6	Formaldehyde cross-linked hyaluronan
536993-92-7	Spirulina maxima, ext.
616204-22-9	L-Argininamide, N-acetyl-L-.alpha.-glutamyl-L-.alpha.-glutamyl-L-methionyl-L-glutaminyl-L-arginyl-
669066-11-9	Celosia argentea cristata, ext.
688013-96-9	L-Tyrosine, N-[(2S)-3-carboxy-2-hydroxy-1-oxopropyl]-
742087-55-4	Steroids, soya hydroxy, 12-hydroxyoctadecanoates
867301-59-5	Pikea robusta, ext.
868047-49-8	Castor oil, hydrogenated, Isostearate
872131-04-9	Divinyl sulfone cross-linked hyaluronan
877677-19-5	Rumex occidentalis, ext.
921608-21-1	Castor oil, hydrogenated, 12-hydroxyoctadecanoate
949109-75-5	Sterols, phytosterols
952500-62-8	Ophiopogon japonicus, ext.
1001439-91-3	Amylopectin, enzyme-hydrolyzed
1026525-47-4	L-Glutamine, glycyl-L-arginylglycyl-L-.alpha.,-aspartyl-L-tyrosyl-L-isoleucyl-L-tryptophyl-L-seryl-L-leucyl-L-,.alpha.-aspartyl-L-threonyl
1033319-29-7	Pichia anomala, ext.
1118558-33-0	Bidens pilosa, ext.
1151559-87-3	Protein hydrolyzates, Candida saitoana
1176232-55-5	Mimosa tenuiflora, ext.
1220882-73-4	Kappaphycus alvarezii, ext.
1242417-48-6	Luffa cylindrica, ext.
1257857-19-4	Furcellaran, ammonium salt
1257964-88-7	Flavones, isoflavones, soya
1259528-20-5	Syrups, 4-O-.alpha.-D-glucopyranosyl-D-glucitol-high hydolyzed starch, hydrogenated
1259528-21-6	Syrups, sorbitol-high hydrolyzed starch, hydrogenated
1353675-54-3	Lindera aggregata aggregata, ext.
1355047-06-1	.alpha.-D-Glucopyranoside, methyl, isooctadecanoate
1434719-44-4	Protein hydrolyzates, Saccharomyces cerevisiae zinc complexes
1434721-25-1	Protein hydrolyzates, Saccharomyces cerevisiae magnesium complexes
1434722-94-7	Protein hydrolyzates, Saccharomyces cerevisiae calcium complexes
1434729-64-2	Protein hydrolyzates, Saccharomyces cerevisiae calcium iron magnesium potassium sodium complexes
1448790-48-4	Soybean, ext.
1460304-48-6	Lactylic esters of fatty acids Fatty acids, vegetable-oil, 1-carboxyethyl esters
1460307-26-9	Lactylic esters of fatty acids Fatty acids, tall-oil, 1-carboxyethyl esters

SCHEDULE 2

Substance Function Codes

Substance function codes	Title	Description
U001	Abrasives	Substances used to wear down or polish surfaces by rubbing against the surface.
U002	Adhesives and sealant substances	Substances used to promote bonding between other substances, promote adhesion of surfaces, or prevent seepage of moisture or air.
U003	Adsorbents and absorbents	Substances used to retain other substances by accumulation on their surface or by assimilation.
U005	Anti-adhesive agents	Substances used to prevent bonding between other substances by discouraging surface attachment.
U006	Bleaching agents	Substances used to lighten or whiten a substrate through chemical reaction, usually an oxidative process which degrades the colour system.
U008	Dyes	Substances used to impart colour to other materials or mixtures by penetrating into the surface of the substrate.
U009	Fillers	Substances used to provide bulk, increase strength, increase hardness, or improve resistance to impact.
U010	Finishing agents	Substances used to impart such functions as softening, static-proofing, wrinkle resistance, and water repellence.
U016	Ion exchange agents	Substances that are used to selectively remove targeted ions from a solution. This code also includes aluminosilicate zeolites.
U017	Lubricants and lubricant additives	Substances used to reduce friction, heat, or wear between moving parts or adjacent solid surfaces, or that enhance the lubricity of other substances.
U018	Odour agents	Substances used to control odours, remove odours, mask odours, or impart odours.
U019	Oxidizing and reducing agents	Substances used to alter the valence state of another substance by donating or accepting electrons or by the addition or removal of hydrogen to a substance.
U020	Photosensitive substances	Substances used for their ability to alter their physical or chemical structure through absorption of light, resulting in the emission of light, dissociation, discoloration, or other chemical reaction.
U021	Pigments	Substances used to impart colour to other materials or mixtures by attaching themselves to the surface of the substrate through binding or adhesion.
U022	Plasticizers	Substances used in plastics, cement, concrete, wallboard, clay bodies, or other materials to increase their plasticity or fluidity.
U024	Process regulators	Substances used to change the rate of a reaction, start or stop the reaction, or otherwise influence the course of the reaction.
U026	Processing aids, not otherwise covered in this table	Substances used in applications other than the production of oil, gas, or geothermal energy to control foaming, corrosion or alkalinity and pH, or to improve the operation of processing equipment.
U027	Propellants and blowing agents	Substances used to dissolve or suspend other substances and either to expel those substances from a container in the form of an aerosol or to impart a cellular structure to plastics, rubber, or thermo set resins.
U028	Solids separation agents	Substances used to promote the separation of suspended solids from a liquid.
U029	Solvents (for cleaning or degreasing)	Substances used to dissolve oils, greases and similar materials from textiles, glassware, metal surfaces, and other articles.
U030	Solvents (which become part of formulation or mixture)	Substances used to dissolve another substance to form a uniformly dispersed solution at the molecular level.
U031	Surface active agents	Substances used to modify surface tension when dissolved in water or water solutions, or reduce interfacial tension between two liquids or between a liquid and a solid or between liquid and air.
U032	Viscosity adjustors	Substances used to alter the viscosity of another substance.
U034	Paint additives and coating additives not otherwise covered in this table	Substances used in a paint or coating formulation to enhance properties such as water repellence, increased gloss, improved fade resistance, ease of application or foam prevention.
U062	Active ingredients in health products and drugs	Substances used as active ingredients in natural health products or prescription or non-prescription drugs.
U063	Flavourants	Substances used as non-medicinal ingredients or excipients in foods, natural health products, and drugs that impart a certain flavor to the food, natural health product or drug.
U999	Other (specify)	Substances with a function not otherwise described in this table. A written description must be provided when using this code.

SCHEDULE 3

Application codes

Application codes	Title	Description
C108	Personal care and cosmetics	Substances contained in personal care products, mixtures or manufactured items that are used for cleansing, grooming, improving or altering skin, hair, or teeth.
C562	Food	Substances that are novel foods or food additives as defined under the Food and Drugs Act.
C563	Drugs	Substances contained in prescription and non-prescription drugs intended for humans or animals.
C564	Natural health	Substances contained in natural health products, mixtures or manufactured items intended for humans or animals.
C565	Medical devices	Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items used for either the diagnosis, treatment, mitigation or prevention of a disease, disorder, or an abnormal physical state; or those used in restoring, correcting or modifying organic functions in humans or animals.
C999	Other	Substances contained in products, mixtures or manufactured items that are not described within any other application code.

EXPLANATORY NOTE

(This note is not part of the notice.)

The Notice with respect to certain substances on the Revised In Commerce List, including biopolymers, plant extracts, mineral extracts, proteins, fats, animal extracts, waxes, and carbohydrates applies to approximately 700 substances on the Revised In Commerce List (R-ICL). The purpose of the notice is to gather information on the commercial status and downstream use of the substances.

The R-ICL is comprised of substances that were in products regulated under the Food and Drugs Act and in Canadian commerce between January 1, 1987, and September 13, 2001. The scope of the information being collected is limited to activities related to the Food and Drugs Act, such as therapeutic products (including human and veterinary drugs, and medical devices), natural health products, food (limited to novel foods and food additives) and cosmetics. Substances that are imported or manufactured with respect to use patterns beyond the scope of the Food and Drugs Act are subject to notification requirements under the New Substances Notification Regulations (Chemicals and Polymers) and the New Substances Notification Regulations (Organisms) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (the “Act”).

The information collected under this notice includes annual commercial quantities and use patterns from manufacturers and importers of these substances, whether the substance is alone or in an applicable product.

Pursuant to subsection 71(3) of the Act, every person to whom this notice applies shall comply with this notice within the time specified in the notice. Responses to this notice shall be submitted to the Minister of the Environment, no later than September 14, 2022, using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada’s Single Window. Inquiries concerning the notice may be directed to the Substances Management Information Line at 1‑800‑567‑1999 (toll-free in Canada), 819‑938‑3232 (outside of Canada) or by email at substances@ec.gc.ca.

Pursuant to subsection 71(4) of the Act, the Minister of the Environment may, on request in writing from any person to whom this notice applies, extend the time or times within which the person shall comply with this notice. The person seeking such extension shall submit, prior to the deadline, a request to the Minister of the Environment at the following email address: substances@ec.gc.ca. Any person making a written request pursuant to subsection 71(4) of the Act should include the name of the party requiring an extension, the substance identifier of the substances for which the person will provide information, as well as the reason for the extension request.

Any person not subject to this notice who has an interest in or involvement with a substance in this notice, may identify themselves by submitting a Declaration of Stakeholder Interest.

Persons who do not meet the requirements of the notice and have no interest in the substances may submit a Declaration of Non-Engagement.

Compliance with the Act is mandatory and specific offences are established by subsection 272.1(1) of the Act. Subsections 272.1(2), (3) and (4) of the Act set the penalties for persons who contravene section 71 of the Act. Offences include failing to comply with an obligation arising from the present notice and providing false or misleading information. Penalties include fines, and the amount of the fine can range from a maximum of $25,000 for an individual convicted following summary proceedings to a maximum of $500,000 for a large corporation convicted on indictment. The maximum fines are doubled for second or subsequent offences.
The current text of the Act, including the most recent amendments, is available on the Department of Justice website.

The Act is enforced in accordance with the Compliance and Enforcement Policy for the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999. Suspected violations under the Act can be reported to the Enforcement Branch by email at enviroinfo@ec.gc.ca.

DEPARTMENT OF ENVIRONMENT

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Publication of results of investigations for approximately 12 200 substances specified on the Domestic Substances List (paragraph 68(b) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)

Whereas a science approach document was developed pursuant to paragraph 68(b) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (the Act), describing a scientific approach that was applied to approximately 12 200 substances specified on the Domestic Substances List in order to classify their relative ecological risk based on hazard and exposure profiles for each substance;

Whereas a summary of the science approach conducted on the substances pursuant to paragraph 68(b) of the Act is annexed hereto;

And whereas the results will assist the Government of Canada in identifying and addressing substances that may be of ecological concern in a more effective manner,

Notice is hereby given that the approach outlined in this science approach document may be used for future chemical prioritization and screening level assessment activities under section 68 of the Act.

Public comment period

Any person may, within 60 days after publication of this notice, file with the Minister of the Environment written comments on the scientific considerations presented in the science approach document. More information regarding the scientific considerations may be obtained from the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website. All comments must cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, and the date of publication of this notice and be addressed to the Executive Director, Program Development and Engagement Division, Department of the Environment, Gatineau, Quebec K1A 0H3, by email to substances@ec.gc.ca, or by using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada’s Single Window.

In accordance with section 313 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, any person who provides information in response to this notice may submit with the information a request that it be treated as confidential.

Jacqueline Gonçalves
Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
Science and Technology Branch
Environment and Climate Change Canada

ANNEX

Summary of the science approach document

In 2016, Environment and Climate Change Canada (ECCC) developed and published a 21st-century science approach to re-prioritizing 640 organic chemicals from the third phase of the Chemicals Management Plan (CMP). Known as the ecological risk classification of organic substances (ERC) approach, this first version of ERC (ERC1) was applied to organic substances that met criteria for further risk assessment following the Government of Canada’s categorization of the Domestic Substances List (DSL) in 2006, performed under the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (CEPA).

Since then, ECCC has refined its approach for the ERC, which led to the creation of this second version (ERC2). This science approach document presents the ERC2 approach and the results of its application to approximately 12 200 organic substances from the DSL that did not meet criteria for further risk assessment following the 2006 categorization exercise. The ERC2 approach builds on ERC1 and refines key areas of uncertainty previously identified in ERC1 through better integration and transparency of weight-of-evidence concepts, expansion of the toxicological and exposure “space” used for hazard and exposure, increased consideration of model domain of applicability, updates to the decision logic governing classification rules based on new tools and lessons learned from ERC1 and the restructure of these rules, an increased focus on long-term developmental and reproductive toxicity and neurotoxicity, and the introduction of confidence and severity scoring for exposure, hazard and risk classification outcomes.

ERC2 is considered a high-throughput integrated approach to testing assessment (IATA) method, as it uses many sources of “alternative data” (also known as new approach methodologies or NAM) such as in silico, in chemico, and in vitro data to complement traditional in vivo sources and to provide evidence for risk classification. The ERC2 approach gathers multiple lines of evidence in chemical profiles for hazard (toxicity) and exposure. The evidence is compared to logic rules established for hazard, exposure and risk classification to determine if future assessment activities are merited. The details for all classification rules in ERC2 are provided in appendices of the science approach document, while the core science behind ERC2, contained in profile descriptors, is provided in the main body of the document. Each ERC2 classification is also associated with a confidence and severity score. The confidence score is a measure of the consensus of data and data availability. The severity score is a measure of hazard, exposure or risk scale and is used as a means of weighting various classification outcomes in ERC2 when considering possible future assessment activities.

Examples of risk assessment outcomes and targeted assessment activities (e.g. identification of endocrine active substances, potential for cumulative assessment, and regrettable alternatives) are provided to demonstrate how results from the ERC2 approach may be applied by ECCC for future work planning. Risk classification, confidence and severity results for the approximately 12 200 substances on the DSL are contained in a Microsoft Excel^® spreadsheet as a supporting document to this science approach document.

The science approach document is available on the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website.

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Publication after screening assessment of 21 substances of the Alcohols Group specified on the Domestic Substances List (paragraphs 68(b) and (c) or subsection 77(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)

Whereas 17 of the 21 substances in the annex below are substances identified under subsection 73(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999;

Whereas a summary of the draft screening assessment conducted on 4 substances pursuant to paragraphs 68(b) and (c) of the Act and on the remaining 17 substances pursuant to section 74 of the Act is annexed hereby;

And whereas it is proposed to conclude that three substances, namely methanol, 1-butanol, and benzenemethanol (benzyl alcohol), meet one or more of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act;

Notice therefore is hereby given that the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health (the ministers) propose to recommend to Her Excellency the Governor in Council that methanol, 1-butanol, and benzyl alcohol be added to Schedule 1 to the Act.

Notice is furthermore given that the ministers have released a risk management scope document for methanol, 1-butanol, and benzyl alcohol to initiate discussions with stakeholders on the development of risk management actions.

And whereas it is proposed to conclude that the remaining 18 substances do not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act,

Notice therefore is hereby given that the ministers propose to take no further action at this time under section 77 of the Act for the 14 substances identified under subsection 73(1) of the Act.

Notice is further given that the ministers propose to take no further action at this time on the remaining four substances.

Notice is further given that options are being considered for follow-up activities to track changes in exposure to 2-propanol, 1,3-dichloro- (1,3-DCP).

Public comment period

Any person may, within 60 days after publication of this notice, file with the Minister of the Environment written comments on the measure the ministers propose to take and on the scientific considerations on the basis of which the measure is proposed. More information regarding the scientific considerations may be obtained from the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website. All comments must cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, and the date of publication of this notice and be sent to the Executive Director, Program Development and Engagement Division, Department of the Environment, Gatineau, Quebec K1A 0H3, by email to substances@ec.gc.ca or by using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada’s Single Window.

In accordance with section 313 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, any person who provides information in response to this notice may submit with the information a request that it be treated as confidential.

Jacqueline Gonçalves
Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

Cécile Siewe
Director General
Industrial Sectors and Chemicals Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

Greg Carreau
Director General
Safe Environments Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of Health

ANNEX

Summary of the draft screening assessment of the Alcohols Group

Pursuant to section 68 or 74 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (CEPA), the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health have conducted a screening assessment of 21 substances referred to collectively under the Chemicals Management Plan as the Alcohols Group. These substances were identified as priorities for assessment as they met categorization criteria under subsection 73(1) of CEPA or were considered a priority on the basis of other human health concerns and are listed in the table below.

Based on considerations including common chemical structure, hazard properties, or exposure patterns, the alcohol substances are assessed as different subgroups or individual substances and in different chapters of this report.

Table 1. List of substances evaluated in the Alcohols Group

CAS RN table b3 note 1	Domestic Substances List name (common name or abbreviation)	Subgroup name
111-27-3	1-Hexanol	Long-chain alcohols
111-87-5	1-Octanol	Long-chain alcohols
143-08-8	1-Nonanol	Long-chain alcohols
112-30-1	1-Decanol	Long-chain alcohols
112-53-8	1-Dodecanol	Long-chain alcohols
112-72-1	1-Tetradecanol	Long-chain alcohols
36653-82-4	1-Hexadecanol	Long-chain alcohols
67762-30-5 table b3 note a	Alcohols, C14-C18	Long-chain alcohols
8027-33-6 table b3 note a table b3 note b	Alcohols, lanolin (lanolin alcohols)	N/A — individual
124-41-4 table b3 note b	Methanol, sodium salt (sodium methanolate)	N/A — individual
67-56-1	Methanol	N/A — individual
71-36-3	1-Butanol	N/A — individual
108-93-0	Cyclohexanol	C6 alcohols
108-11-2	2-Pentanol, 4-methyl (MIBC)	C6 alcohols
77-99-6	1,3-Propanediol, 2-ethyl-2-(hydroxymethyl)-(TMP)	C6 alcohols
108-46-3	1,3-Benzenediol (resorcinol)	Aromatic alcohols
100-51-6	Benzenemethanol (benzyl alcohol)	Aromatic alcohols
122-97-4	Benzenepropanol	Aromatic alcohols
104-76-7	1-Hexanol, 2-ethyl- (2-ethyl-1-hexanol)	N/A — individual
96-23-1 table b3 note b	2-Propanol, 1,3-dichloro- (1,3-dichloro-2-propanol; 1,3-DCP)	N/A — individual
107-18-6 table b3 note b	2-Propen-1-ol (allyl alcohol)	N/A — individual
Table b3 note(s) Table b3 note a This substance is a UVCB (unknown or variable composition, complex reaction products, or biological materials). Return to table b3 note a referrer Table b3 note b This substance was not identified under subsection 73(1) of CEPA but was included in this assessment as it was considered a priority on the basis of other human health concerns. Return to table b3 note b referrer Table b3 note 1 The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS RN) is the property of the American Chemical Society, and any use or redistribution, except as required in supporting regulatory requirements and/or for reports to the Government of Canada when the information and the reports are required by law or administrative policy, is not permitted without the prior, written permission of the American Chemical Society. Return to table b3 note 1 referrer

The ecological risks of the substances in the Alcohols Group were characterized using the ecological risk classification of organic substances (ERC), which is a risk-based approach that employs multiple metrics for both hazard and exposure, with weighted consideration of multiple lines of evidence for determining risk classification. Hazard profiles are based principally on metrics regarding mode of toxic action, chemical reactivity, food web–derived internal toxicity thresholds, bioavailability, and chemical and biological activity. Metrics considered in the exposure profiles include potential emission rate, overall persistence, and long-range transport potential. A risk matrix is used to assign a low, moderate or high level of potential concern for substances on the basis of their hazard and exposure profiles. Based on the outcome of the ERC analysis, the substances in the Alcohols Group are considered unlikely to be causing ecological harm.

Considering all available lines of evidence presented in this draft screening assessment, there is a low risk of harm to the environment from the 21 alcohols in this screening assessment. It is proposed to conclude that the 21 substances in the Alcohols Group do not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(a) or (b) of CEPA, as they are not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity or that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends.

The long-chain alcohols are industrial chemicals, produced primarily from oleochemical- or petrochemical-based feedstock. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, three of the long-chain alcohols were manufactured in Canada in 2011 and the substances surveyed were imported into Canada that year. These alcohols are used as raw materials and as surface active agents. They are also used in a range of products available to consumers, such as cleaning agents and cosmetics. Some of the long-chain alcohols may be used as food flavouring agents, as components in the manufacture of food packaging materials, and in incidental additives used in food processing establishments. The long-chain alcohols were not identified as posing a hazard to human health based on classifications by other national or international agencies for carcinogenicity, genotoxicity, developmental toxicity, or reproductive toxicity. Given their low hazard profile, the potential risk to human health from the long-chain alcohols is expected to be low.

Alcohols, lanolin, hereinafter referred to as lanolin alcohols, are industrial chemicals used as intermediates or as biodiesel fuel in industrial facilities. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, this substance was not manufactured in Canada in 2011, but was imported into Canada that year. With respect to products available to consumers, lanolin alcohols are largely used in the formulation of cosmetics, and exposure of the general population is mainly through the dermal route. Lanolin alcohols were not identified as posing a hazard to human health based on classifications by other national or international agencies for carcinogenicity, genotoxicity, developmental toxicity or reproductive toxicity. On the basis of their low hazard to human health, the potential risk to human health from lanolin alcohols is expected to be low.

Methanol, sodium salt, hereinafter referred to as sodium methanolate, is mainly used as a chemical intermediate in the manufacture of specialty chemicals. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, this substance was not manufactured in Canada in 2011, but was imported into Canada that year. Sodium methanolate is highly reactive with water. This substance was not identified as posing a hazard to human health based on classifications by other national or international agencies for carcinogenicity. The critical effect of sodium methanolate is due to the formation of sodium hydroxide after contact with moisture, resulting in corrosivity to skin and eyes upon direct contact and acute and repeated-dose toxicity by oral, dermal or inhalation routes. On the basis of its minimal exposure to the general population, the potential risk to human health from sodium methanolate is expected to be low.

Methanol is an industrial chemical that is manufactured and imported in large quantities in Canada. Methanol is mainly used in site- or industry-restricted applications, with the largest market in formaldehyde production. It is used in cosmetics, cleaning agents, adhesives, paint and varnish removers. Methanol may be used as a component in the manufacture of food packaging materials, and is a permitted food additive. Methanol occurs naturally in some foods and alcoholic beverages. This substance has been reviewed by international regulatory agencies. Methanol exposure may arise from oral, inhalation or dermal routes. The critical effects of methanol included developmental effects, such as skeletal malformations in mice and a decrease in brain weight in rats. Considering all available information and routes of exposure of the general population, it is determined that the levels of methanol inhalation exposure from the use of certain paint and varnish removers may pose a health risk. For all other uses of methanol, it is not expected that the general population will be exposed to high levels of methanol under normal conditions; therefore, the potential risks to human health from methanol in uses other than certain paint and varnish removers are expected to be low.

According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, 1-butanol was not manufactured in Canada in 2011, but was imported into Canada that year. 1-Butanol is used in cosmetics, natural health products (NHPs), non-prescription and prescription drugs, cleaning agents, lacquers, automotive care products, and as a solvent in paint and ink products. 1-Butanol occurs naturally in fermentation processes and may also be used as a food flavouring agent and as a component in the manufacture of food packaging materials. 1-Butanol exposure may occur via the inhalation, oral, or dermal routes. The critical effects of 1-butanol include developmental effects. A comparison of the levels of 1-butanol from use of lacquer with levels associated with health effects results in margins of exposure (MOEs) that are potentially inadequate to account for uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.

The C6 alcohols consist of cyclohexanol, 2-pentanol, 4-methyl, and 1,3-propanediol, 2-ethyl-2-(hydroxymethyl)-. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, the three C6 alcohols were not manufactured in Canada above the 100 kg threshold in 2011, but were imported into Canada that year. These substances are used as solvents in polymer and resin production and in mining. In products available to consumers, they may be used in glaze or ceramic paints, automotive care products, adhesives and sealants, and cosmetics. In addition, the C6 alcohols may be used as a component in the manufacture of food packaging materials and can be present as incidental additives in food processing establishments. They may also be used as food flavouring agents. There is a potential for exposure of the general population to these substances, mainly through dermal absorption from cleaning agents and inhalation. These substances were not identified as posing a high hazard to human health based on classifications by other national or international agencies for carcinogenicity, genotoxicity, developmental toxicity, or reproductive toxicity. A comparison of the levels of exposure to the C6 alcohols to which the general population may be exposed with levels associated with health effects demonstrates that the MOEs for exposure to cyclohexanol and 1,3-propanediol, 2-ethyl-2-(hydroxymethyl) are considered adequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.

The aromatic alcohols consist of 1,3-benzenediol, benzenemethanol (hereinafter referred to as benzyl alcohol), and benzenepropanol. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, 1,3-benzenediol and benzyl alcohol were manufactured in Canada in 2011, but benzenepropanol was not reported to be manufactured in Canada above the 100 kg threshold. All three alcohols were imported into Canada. 1,3-Benzenediol and benzyl alcohol are used primarily as solvents in polymer and resin production and in mining. In products available to consumers, the aromatic alcohols are used in automotive products, household cleaning products, construction and paint products, cosmetics and NHPs, as well as in non-prescription and prescription drugs. The aromatic alcohols may also be used as food flavouring agents, and benzyl alcohol is a permitted food additive. There is a potential for exposure of the general population to these substances, mainly through dermal and inhalation routes. The critical effects for benzyl alcohol are effects on the nervous system, and those for 1,3-benzenediol and benzenepropanol are reproductive and/or developmental effects. A comparison of the levels of benzyl alcohol for certain cosmetics and NHPs to which the general population may be exposed with levels associated with health effects indicates that the MOE for these exposures are potentially inadequate to account for uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases. A comparison of the levels of 1,3-benzenediol and benzenepropanol to which the general population may be exposed with levels associated with health effects shows that the MOEs for exposure to 1,3-benzenediol and benzenepropanol are considered adequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.

1-Hexanol, 2-ethyl, hereinafter referred to as 2-ethyl-1-hexanol, occurs naturally in a number of foods, may be used as a food flavouring agent and as a component in the manufacture of food packaging materials. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, this substance was not manufactured in Canada in 2011, but was imported into Canada that year. This substance can form during the heat processing of certain foods. These foods include soy sauce and soy-based products, meat and meat products, and foods containing hydrolyzed protein products. The critical health effect for 2-ethyl-1-hexanol was a decrease in serum enzyme levels. A comparison of the levels of 2-ethyl-1-hexanol to which the general population may be exposed with levels associated with health effects indicates that the MOEs are adequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.

2-Propanol,1,3-dichloro-, hereinafter referred to as 1,3-dichloro-2-propanol (1,3-DCP) is an anthropogenic compound. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, this substance was manufactured in and imported into Canada in 2011. Average and high-end estimates of oral exposure to 1,3-DCP from various food sources produced in 2006 by the Joint (Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization) Expert Committee on Food Additives were used in this assessment. These estimates, which assume a worst-case scenario, are considered to be conservative. A comparison of the levels of 1,3-DCP to which the general population may be exposed from food with levels associated with health effects shows that the MOEs for this substance are considered adequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.

While exposure of the general population to 1,3-DCP is not of concern at current levels, this substance is considered to have a health effect of concern on the basis of its carcinogenic group 2B designation by the International Agency for Research on Cancer. Therefore, there may be a concern for human health if exposures were to increase. Options are being considered for follow-up activities to track changes in exposure to 1,3-DCP.

2-Propen-1-ol is used in industry in the synthesis of glycerol and other specialty chemicals. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, 2-propene-1-ol was not manufactured in Canada in 2011, but was imported into Canada that year. It may be used in the manufacture of food packaging materials. This substance occurs naturally in crab meat, rotting mussels, and as a result of the operation of enzymes activated during the crushing of garlic. It can also be formed from the hydrolysis of allyl esters used as flavouring agents in food. Estimates of the exposure of this substance from foods are made from the measured concentration of 2-propen-1-ol in different food categories. A comparison of the levels of 2-propen-1-ol to which the general population may be exposed with levels associated with health effects shows that the MOEs to this substance are considered adequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.

Considering all the information presented in this draft screening assessment, it is proposed to conclude that methanol, 1-butanol and benzyl alcohol meet the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA, as they are entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.

Additionally, it is proposed to conclude that the remaining 18 substances in the Alcohols Group do not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA, as they are not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.

Proposed conclusion

It is therefore proposed to conclude that methanol, 1-butanol and benzyl alcohol meet one or more of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA and that the remaining 18 alcohols in this group do not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA.

It is also proposed that methanol meets the persistence but not the bioaccumulation criteria and that 1-butanol and benzyl alcohol do not meet the persistence or bioaccumulation criteria, as set out in the Persistence and Bioaccumulation Regulations of CEPA.

Consideration for follow-up

While exposure of the general population to 1,3-DCP is not of concern at current levels, this substance is associated with effects of concern. Therefore, there may be a concern if exposure were to increase. Follow-up activities to track changes in exposure or commercial use patterns are under consideration.

Stakeholders are encouraged to provide, during the 60-day public comment period on the draft screening assessment, any information pertaining to this substance that may help inform the choice of follow-up activity. This could include information on new or planned import, manufacture or use of this substance, if the information has not previously been submitted to the ministers.

The draft screening assessment and the risk management scope document for these substances are available on the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website.

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANNABIS ACT

Cannabis Fees Order: Increase to fees set out in sections 3, 4 and 5

The Cannabis Fees Order (SOR/2018-198) was published in the Canada Gazette, Part II, on October 17, 2018, and came into force on the same date.

Section 2 of the Order provides that “the fees set out in sections 3 to 5 are to be adjusted in each fiscal year on April 1 by the percentage change over 12 months in the April All-items Consumer Price Index for Canada, as published by Statistics Canada under the Statistics Act, for the previous fiscal year and rounded to the next highest dollar.”

Notice is hereby given that the following fees will be adjusted effective April 1, 2022, by the 2021 Consumer Price Index of 3.4%.

Table 1: Fees to be adjusted as of April 1, 2022

Fee description	Current fee	Adjusted fee
Screening of a licence application for micro-cultivation	$1,706	$1,765
Screening of a licence application for standard cultivation	$3,411	$3,527
Screening of a licence application for nursery	$1,706	$1,765
Screening of a licence application for micro-processing	$1,706	$1,765
Screening of a licence application for standard processing	$3,411	$3,527
Screening of a licence application for sale for medical purposes	$3,411	$3,527
Application for security clearance	$1,722	$1,781
Application for import or export permit	$636	$658

John Clare
Director General
Strategic Policy Directorate
Controlled Substances and Cannabis Branch

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

FOOD AND DRUGS ACT

Interim Order No. 3 Respecting the Importation and Sale of Medical Devices for Use in Relation to COVID-19

Whereas the Minister of Health believes that immediate action is required to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to health, safety or the environment;

Therefore, the Minister of Health, pursuant to subsection 30.1(1)^{footnote a} of the Food and Drugs Act^{footnote b}, makes the annexed Interim Order No. 3 Respecting the Importation and Sale of Medical Devices for Use in Relation to COVID-19.

Ottawa, February 21, 2022

Jean-Yves Duclos
Minister of Health

Interim Order No. 3 Respecting the Importation and Sale of Medical Devices for Use in Relation to COVID-19

Interpretation

Definitions

1 (1) The following definitions apply in this Interim Order.

COVID-19 medical device

means a medical device that is manufactured, sold or represented for use in relation to severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2). (instrument médical destiné à être utilisé à l’égard de la COVID-19)

foreign regulatory authority

means a government agency or other entity outside Canada that has a legal right to control the manufacturing, use or sale of medical devices within its jurisdiction and that may take enforcement action to ensure that medical devices marketed within its jurisdiction comply with the applicable legal requirements. (autorité réglementaire étrangère)

incident

means any incident involving a COVID-19 medical device that

• (a) is related to a failure of the device, a deterioration in its quality or effectiveness or any inadequacy in its labelling or in its directions for use; or
• (b) has led to the death or a serious deterioration in the state of health of a patient, user or other person, or could do so were it to recur. (incident)

List of Medical Devices for Expanded Use

means the List of Medical Devices for Expanded Use in Relation to the COVID-19 Pandemic that is published by the Government of Canada on its website, as amended from time to time. (Liste d’instruments médicaux destinés à un usage supplémentaire)

Regulations

means the Medical Devices Regulations. (Règlement)

Words and expressions

(2) Unless the context requires otherwise, words and expressions used in this Interim Order have the same meaning as in the Regulations.

Application

Importation and sale

2 (1) Part 1 of the Regulations, with the exception of the provisions set out in subsection (2), does not apply to the importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device if the following conditions are met:

• (a) the Minister determines that there is an urgent public health need for the importation or sale of the device;
• (b) the manufacturer of the device has submitted to the Minister an application for the authorization for importation or sale of the device in a form established by the Minister;
• (c) the Minister has issued the authorization; and
• (d) the authorization has not been cancelled.

Application of Regulations

(2) The following provisions of the Regulations apply in respect of the importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device if the conditions set out in paragraphs (1)(a) to (d) are met:

• (a) in the case of an importer or distributor, sections 44 to 51.1 and 57 to 61; and
• (b) sections 52 to 56 and 63 to 65.1.

Importation — Class I medical device

(3) Despite paragraph (2)(a), subsection 44(3) of the Regulations does not apply to a person who imports a Class I COVID-19 medical device from the manufacturer of that device.

General

Establishment licence — suspension or cancellation

3 An importer or distributor must not import or sell a COVID-19 medical device if their establishment licence has been

• (a) suspended under section 49 or 50 of the Regulations and has not been reinstated under section 51 of the Regulations; or
• (b) cancelled under section 51.1 of the Regulations.

Application

4 (1) An application for the authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device must contain sufficient information and material to enable the Minister to determine whether to issue the authorization and must include the following:

• (a) the name of the device;
• (b) the class of the device;
• (c) the identifier of the device, including the identifier of any medical device that is part of a system, test kit, medical device group, medical device family or medical device group family;
• (d) the name and address of the manufacturer as it appears on the device label;
• (e) the address where the device is manufactured, if different from the one referred to in paragraph (d);
• (f) the diagnosis, treatment, mitigation or prevention for which the device is required;
• (g) the known information in relation to the quality, safety and effectiveness of the device;
• (h) the directions for use, unless directions are not required for the device to be used safely and effectively;
• (i) an attestation by the applicant that documented procedures are in place in respect of distribution records, complaint handling, incident reporting and recalls; and
• (j) a copy of the label of the device.

Class III and IV devices

(2) An application in respect of a Class III or IV COVID-19 medical device must contain, in addition to the information and material referred to in subsection (1), the following:

• (a) a description of the materials used in the manufacture and packaging of the device; and
• (b) a list of the countries, other than Canada, where the device has been sold, the total number of units sold in those countries and a summary of any reported problems with the device and any recalls of the device in those countries.

Foreign regulatory authority

(3) Despite subsection (1) and, if applicable, subsection (2), the application need not include the information and material referred to in paragraph (1)(g) and, if applicable, subsection (2) if the applicant provides information that demonstrates that the sale of the COVID-19 medical device is authorized by a foreign regulatory authority and that authorization has not been suspended.

Issuance

5 The Minister must issue the authorization for importation or sale if the following requirements are met:

• (a) the applicant has submitted an application to the Minister that meets the requirements set out in subsection 4(1) and, if applicable, subsection 4(2);
• (b) the applicant has submitted to the Minister all additional information or material, including samples, requested under section 9;
• (c) the Minister has sufficient evidence to support the conclusion that the benefits associated with the COVID-19 medical device outweigh the risks, having regard to the uncertainties relating to the benefits and risks and the urgent public health need; and
• (d) the Minister determines that the health or safety of patients, users or other persons will not be unduly affected.

Amendment

6 A person must not sell a COVID-19 medical device in respect of which an authorization for importation or sale has been issued and has not been cancelled if any of the matters referred to in subsection 4(1) and, if applicable, subsection 4(2) are significantly different from the information or material contained in the application, unless

• (a) the manufacturer has submitted to the Minister an application to amend the authorization;
• (b) the Minister determines that the requirements set out in paragraphs 5(b) to (d) are met; and
• (c) the Minister amends the authorization.

Terms and conditions

7 The Minister may, at any time, impose terms and conditions on the authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device or amend those terms and conditions.

Cancellation

8 The Minister may cancel the authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device by written notice, giving reasons, if

• (a) the Minister determines that the requirements set out in paragraphs 5(c) and (d) are no longer met;
• (b) the Minister determines that the terms and conditions imposed under section 7 are not met;
• (c) a medical device licence has been issued for the COVID-19 medical device under section 36 of the Regulations; or
• (d) the authorization for sale of the COVID-19 medical device that has been issued by a foreign regulatory authority is suspended or cancelled.

Additional information and material

9 The Minister may request a person who has submitted an application for an authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device or a holder of such an authorization to submit any additional information or any material, including samples, that is necessary to enable the Minister to determine whether to issue, amend or cancel the authorization.

Labelling

10 A person must not import or sell a COVID-19 medical device unless the device has a label that sets out the following information:

• (a) the name of the device;
• (b) the name and address of the manufacturer;
• (c) the identifier of the device, including the identifier of any medical device that is part of a system, test kit, medical device group, medical device family or device group family;
• (d) in the case of a Class III or IV device, the control number;
• (e) if the contents are not readily apparent, an indication of what the package contains, expressed in terms appropriate to the device, such as the size, net weight, length, volume or number of units;
• (f) an indication that the device is sterile, if the manufacturer intends the device to be sold in a sterile condition;
• (g) the expiry date of the device, if the device has one, to be determined by the manufacturer on the basis of the component that has the shortest projected useful life;
• (h) unless self-evident to the intended user, the medical conditions, purposes and uses for which the device is manufactured, sold or represented, as well as the performance specifications of the device if those specifications are necessary for proper use;
• (i) the directions for use, unless directions are not required for the device to be used safely and effectively; and
• (j) any special storage conditions applicable to the device.

Label information — English or French

11 (1) Subject to subsection (3), the information required by section 10 must, as a minimum, be in either English or French.

Directions for use — other official language

(2) Subject to subsection (3), if the directions for use are supplied in only one official language at the time of sale, directions for use in the other official language must be made available by the manufacturer as soon as possible at the request of the purchaser.

Certain information — English and French

(3) In respect of a COVID-19 medical device to be sold to the general public, the information required by paragraphs 10(a) and (e) to (j) must, as a minimum, be in both English and French.

Importation — copy of authorization

12 Each shipment of a COVID-19 medical device that is imported into Canada must be accompanied by a copy of the authorization for importation.

Incident reporting

13 The holder of an authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device must, within 10 days after becoming aware of an incident in Canada, report the incident to the Minister and specify the nature of the incident and the circumstances surrounding it.

Expanded use

14 Part 1 of the Regulations does not apply to the importation or sale of a medical device or a COVID-19 medical device that is set out in column 1 of the List of Medical Devices for Expanded Use for the expanded use set out in column 2 if the following conditions are met:

• (a) the Minister determines that there is an urgent public health need for the expanded use of the medical device or the COVID-19 medical device;
• (b) the Minister has evidence to support the conclusion that the benefits associated with the expanded use outweigh the risks, having regard to the uncertainties relating to the benefits and risks and the urgent public health need; and
• (c) the Minister determines that the health or safety of patients, users or other persons will not be unduly affected.

Supplementary information

15 The Minister must publish on a Government of Canada website supplementary information pertaining to the expanded use of a medical device or a COVID-19 medical device, including

• (a) a statement of the expanded use;
• (b) a statement of the known and potential benefits and the known and potential risks; and
• (c) any supplement to the directions for use, unless a supplement is not required for the device to be used safely and effectively.

Information request

16 (1) The Minister may request from the holder of a medical device licence or the holder of an authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device, in respect of a device set out in column 1 of the List of Medical Devices for Expanded Use, any information in relation to its expanded use set out in column 2 that the holder possesses or to which they have reasonable access.

Obligation to provide information

(2) The holder of the licence or authorization must provide the requested information electronically in a format specified by or acceptable to the Minister within the time limit specified by the Minister. The time limit must not be less than 24 hours after the request is made unless the Minister has reasonable grounds to believe that there is a serious and imminent risk of injury to human health.

Transitional Provisions

Definition of Interim Order No. 2

17 In sections 18 to 25, Interim Order No. 2 means Interim Order No. 2 Respecting the Importation and Sale of Medical Devices for Use in Relation to COVID-19, made by the Minister on March 1, 2021 and published in the Canada Gazette, Part I, on March 20, 2021.

Applications

18 An application for an authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device that was submitted to the Minister under Interim Order No. 2 before the day on which this Interim Order is made and in respect of which no decision has been made before that day is deemed to be an application for an authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device submitted under this Interim Order.

Authorizations

19 An authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device that was issued by the Minister under Interim Order No. 2 before the day on which this Interim Order is made and has not been cancelled before that day is deemed to be an authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device issued under this Interim Order.

Amendment applications

20 An application to amend an authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device that was submitted to the Minister under Interim Order No. 2 before the day on which this Interim Order is made and in respect of which no decision has been made before that day is deemed to be an application to amend an authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device submitted under this Interim Order.

Amended authorization

21 An authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device that was amended by the Minister under Interim Order No. 2 before the day on which this Interim Order is made and has not been cancelled before that day is deemed to be an authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device amended to the same extent under this Interim Order.

Terms and conditions

22 Any terms and conditions that were imposed on an authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device by the Minister under Interim Order No. 2 before the day on which this Interim Order is made are deemed to be terms and conditions imposed on the authorization for importation or sale of a COVID-19 medical device under this Interim Order.

Request — additional information and material

23 A request that was made by the Minister under Interim Order No. 2 before the day on which this Interim Order is made for additional information or material, including samples, is deemed to be a request for additional information or material under this Interim Order.

Expanded use

24 A medical device or a COVID-19 medical device, its expanded use and the supplementary information pertaining to that use that were set out in the List of Medical Devices for Expanded Use under Interim Order No. 2 before the day on which this Interim Order is made are deemed to be set out in that List under this Interim Order.

Request — expanded use information

25 A request that was made by the Minister under Interim Order No. 2 before the day on which this Interim Order is made for information in relation to the expanded use of a medical device or a COVID-19 medical device set out in the List of Medical Devices for Expanded Use is deemed to be a request for information in relation to the expanded use under this Interim Order.

Repeal

26 Interim Order No. 2 Respecting the Importation and Sale of Medical Devices for Use in Relation to COVID-19, made by the Minister of Health on March 1, 2021 and published in the Canada Gazette, Part I, on March 20, 2021, is repealed.

EXPLANATORY NOTE

(This note is not part of the interim order.)

Proposal

Interim Order No. 3 Respecting the Importation and Sale of Medical Devices for Use in Relation to COVID-19 (the third interim order) was made by the Minister of Health on February 21, 2022, in accordance with subsection 30.1(1) of the Food and Drugs Act (the Act). The Minister may make an interim order if immediate action is required to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to health, safety or the environment.

The Interim Order Respecting the Importation and Sale of Medical Devices for Use in Relation to COVID-19 (the first interim order) was made on March 18, 2020. It was approved by the Governor in Council (GIC) on March 24, 2020. It was repealed on March 1, 2021, and replaced with Interim Order No. 2 Respecting the Importation and Sale of Medical Devices for Use in Relation to COVID-19 (the second interim order), which was approved by the GIC on March 15, 2021. The third interim order repeals the second interim order.

This third interim order maintains all of the flexibilities of the second interim order, including the consideration of urgent public health needs. These flexibilities are needed to assess evidence that demonstrates the safety and effectiveness of medical devices. The third interim order also continues to allow the importation and sale of COVID-19 medical devices that were authorized under the previous interim orders.

In accordance with paragraph 30.1(2)(a) of the Act, the third interim order will remain in effect for 14 days, unless it is approved by the GIC. In this case, it would remain in effect for up to one year.

Objective

The third interim order supports Canada’s ongoing focus on dealing with the significant risk that COVID-19 continues to pose to the health and safety of Canadians. It contributes to securing Canada’s medical device supply chain by

• providing an expedited pathway for authorizing COVID-19 medical devices; and
• helping to facilitate access to safe and effective COVID-19 devices for health care workers and other Canadians.

Background

COVID-19

COVID-19 is an infectious respiratory disease caused by a strain of the severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2). COVID-19 infection has been known to cause respiratory symptoms, fever, cough, shortness of breath and breathing difficulties. In more severe cases, it may cause pneumonia, severe acute respiratory syndrome, kidney failure and death.

The World Health Organization (WHO) declared a global pandemic related to COVID-19 on March 11, 2020, with COVID-19 now affecting the majority of countries across the globe. According to the COVID-19 Dashboard by the text-center for Systems Science and Engineering at Johns Hopkins University, there have been more than 379 million cases and over 5.6 million people have lost their lives. According to the outbreak update from the Government of Canada, the number of confirmed cases in Canada as of February 1, 2022, has exceeded 3 million and over 33 000 people in Canada have lost their lives. However, the situation continues to evolve and change.

From the outset, the COVID-19 pandemic has created challenges in global supply chains, including an unprecedented demand for certain medical devices. Medical device manufacturers and importers adapted quickly to meet demands for COVID-19 devices. New manufacturers also stepped in to create additional capacity.

Combined global efforts continue to identify ways to contain the pandemic and prevent further spread as well as find effective treatments and cures against this disease.

Government of Canada’s response

The health and safety of Canadians is the Government of Canada’s top priority during the COVID-19 pandemic. The Government therefore took action to provide a faster way to authorize the importation and sale in Canada of medical devices that are used to diagnose, treat, mitigate or prevent COVID-19.

The first and second interim orders have been effective. For instance, over 770 authorizations for COVID-19 medical devices have been issued, including 107 testing devices, such as rapid test kits, and over 660 medical devices other than testing devices, such as personal protective equipment. This authorization pathway for COVID-19 medical devices has helped to secure Canada’s medical device supply chain. It did so by facilitating continued expedited access to safe and effective COVID-19 devices for health care workers and other Canadians.

Health Canada had previously notified stakeholders of a proposed approach to introduce transition regulations. This would have ceased the expedited authorization pathway, but extended current authorizations until industry could meet certain requirements to transition to the Medical Devices Regulations.

As the pandemic is evolving, the Government of Canada continues to evaluate Canada’s medical device supply. With the emergence of variants such as Omicron, one of the best options for controlling the spread of the virus and managing its risks is to maintain the flexibilities provided by the expedited authorization pathway in order to continue to offer accelerated access to COVID-19 medical devices.

As a result, Health Canada has determined that, at this time, a third interim order is necessary to continue to meet the needs of Canadians and industry, by enabling faster access to priority COVID-19 medical devices (e.g. test kits, N95 masks), than a transition to the Medical Devices Regulations, as previously communicated.

The tools and flexibilities used to authorize the importation and sale of COVID-19 medical devices from the previous interim orders are the most effective means for providing an expedited pathway for COVID-19 devices. The interim order pathway helps to facilitate access by health care workers and other people to the devices they need.

Implications

Requirements carried over from the previous interim order

As was the case under the second interim order, the third interim order provides for an expedited authorization pathway for COVID-19 medical devices. This contributes to ensuring Canadians have continued access to COVID-19 medical devices.

The third interim order continues to apply to all classes of medical devices and provides the following three authorization mechanisms:

• (1) an expedited authorization pathway for importing and selling new COVID-19 medical devices;
• (2) expanded use indications for devices authorized under the Medical Devices Regulations or the third interim order without requiring the manufacturer to apply; and
• (3) authorization of new COVID-19 medical devices that have been approved by a trusted foreign regulatory authority.

The third interim order still allows the Minister to determine the level of evidence required to demonstrate the safety and effectiveness of devices authorized through the interim order, in light of the urgent public health need. This new interim order continues to also

• provide flexibility and regulatory oversight to enable ongoing importation, sale and distribution of COVID-19 medical devices, including personal protective equipment;
• incorporate by reference the existing list of licensed or authorized devices for which an expanded use has been approved;
• ensure that all authorizations for medical devices issued under the previous interim order, including any terms and conditions on those authorizations, will remain in effect;
• require importers and distributors of all COVID-19 devices to hold a medical device establishment licence; and
• maintain bilingual labelling requirements for manufacturers, importers and distributors of all COVID-19 medical devices.

Further, any applications that are outstanding when the previous interim order expires will still be considered under the third interim order.

All authorized COVID-19 devices are subject to post-market requirements. These include incident reporting, reporting of a voluntary recall and record-keeping requirements related to distribution.

The Minister also maintains the ability, at any time, to

• impose or amend terms and conditions on authorizations; and
• ask for more information or materials about a COVID-19 medical device submission, existing authorized device or expanded use.

Health Canada will continue to monitor the safety and effectiveness of authorized COVID-19 devices. This includes taking immediate action, such as cancelling authorizations if required, to protect people’s health and safety.

Manufacturers of medical devices authorized under the third interim order will not be subject to evaluation, amendment and right-to-sell fees.

Consultation

The overall approach for the second interim order is being maintained in the third interim order. Therefore, information gathered from the targeted email consultations for the development of the second interim order and related transition regulations, held from November 2020 to January 2021, helped to inform the third interim order. This consultation process also included two stakeholder webinar sessions, as well as a presentation at the Regulatory MedTech Conference. The email consultation was sent to 9 000 stakeholders, including

• manufacturers that have an authorization under the previous interim order;
• manufacturers that applied for an authorization under the previous interim order; and
• current medical device establishment licence holders.

Federal government departments, provinces and territories were also consulted on the development of the second interim order. Furthermore, the first and second interim orders have been in place and public for nearly two years before the third interim order took effect. Health Canada has not received any other feedback about the interim orders from outside the stakeholder groups listed above.

Health Canada received 72 stakeholder responses in total. Of the consultation comments concerning the policy approaches in the second interim order, respondents were generally supportive of the provisions. Some stakeholders gave specific reasons for their support of the first interim order, such as

• reduced barriers;
• reduced time to market;
• reduced costs;
• simplicity of application process; and
• flexible scientific requirements.

Respondents also provided feedback on the second interim order’s bilingual labelling requirement. While most respondents did not express significant concerns with meeting the requirement in the second interim order, some international manufacturers were concerned. The bilingual labelling requirement is justified given the need for oversight over industry and the fact that the requirement exists in the Medical Devices Regulations. To mitigate these concerns, Health Canada provided transition periods in the second interim order to help offset the burden on industry. The bilingual labelling requirement has now been in place since March 1, 2021, and the transition periods have now elapsed.

Based on the stakeholder feedback from both the email consultation and webinars, no further changes were made to the second interim order. The third interim order maintains all of the second interim order’s flexibilities.

Health Canada also informed provinces, territories, other federal government departments and stakeholders of its plans for the third interim order.

Contact

Bruno Rodrigue
Executive Director
Office of Legislative and Regulatory Modernization
Policy, Planning and International Affairs Directorate
Health Products and Food Branch
Health Canada
Address Locator: 3000A
Holland Cross, Suite P2108
11 Holland Avenue
Ottawa, Ontario
K1A 0K9
Email: lrm.consultations-mlr@hc-sc.gc.ca

DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY AND EMERGENCY PREPAREDNESS

CRIMINAL CODE

Designation as fingerprint examiner

Pursuant to subsection 667(5) of the Criminal Code, I hereby designate the following persons of the Winnipeg Police Service as fingerprint examiners:

• Krista McKenzie
• Cara-Lynn Van de Mosselaer

Ottawa, March 1, 2022

Darryl Sitka
Acting Director General
Crime Prevention Branch

DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT

AERONAUTICS ACT

Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 55

Whereas the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 55 is required to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to aviation safety or the safety of the public;

Whereas the provisions of the annexed Order may be contained in a regulation made pursuant to sections 4.71^{footnote c} and 4.9^{footnote d}, paragraphs 7.6(1)(a)^{footnote e} and (b)^{footnote f} and section 7.7^{footnote g} of the Aeronautics Act^{footnote h};

Whereas, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1.1)^{footnote i} of the Aeronautics Act ^{footnote h}, the Minister of Transport authorized the Deputy Minister of Transport to make an interim order that contains any provision that may be contained in a regulation made under Part I of that Act to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to aviation safety or the safety of the public;

And whereas, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1.2)^{footnote i} of that Act, the Deputy Minister of Transport has consulted with the persons and organizations that that Deputy Minister considers appropriate in the circumstances before making the annexed Order;

Therefore, the Deputy Minister of Transport, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1.1)^{footnote i} of the Aeronautics Act ^{footnote h}, makes the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 55.

Ottawa, February 23, 2022

Michael Keenan
Deputy Minister of Transport

Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 55

Interpretation

Definitions

1 (1) The following definitions apply in this Interim Order.

accredited person

means a foreign national who holds a passport that contains a valid diplomatic, consular, official or special representative acceptance issued by the Chief of Protocol for the Department of Foreign Affairs, Trade and Development. (personne accréditée)

aerodrome property

means, in respect of an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1, any air terminal buildings or restricted areas or any facilities used for activities related to aircraft operations or aerodrome operations that are located at the aerodrome. (terrains de l’aérodrome)

aerodrome security personnel

has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (personnel de sûreté de l’aérodrome)

air carrier

means any person who operates a commercial air service under Subpart 1, 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII of the Regulations. (transporteur aérien)

Canadian Forces

means the armed forces of Her Majesty raised by Canada. (Forces canadiennes)

Chief Public Health Officer

means the Chief Public Health Officer appointed under subsection 6(1) of the Public Health Agency of Canada Act. (administrateur en chef)

COVID-19

means the coronavirus disease 2019. (COVID-19)

COVID-19 molecular test

means a COVID-19 screening or diagnostic test carried out by an accredited laboratory, including a test performed using the method of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or reverse transcription loop-mediated isothermal amplification (RT-LAMP). (essai moléculaire relatif à la COVID-19)

document of entitlement

has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (document d’autorisation)

foreign national

has the same meaning as in subsection 2(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act. (étranger)

non-passenger screening checkpoint

has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des non-passagers)

operator of an aerodrome

means the person in charge of an aerodrome where activities related to civil aviation are conducted and includes an employee, agent or mandatary or other authorized representative of that person. (exploitant)

passenger screening checkpoint

has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des passagers)

peace officer

has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (agent de la paix)

Regulations

means the Canadian Aviation Regulations. (Règlement)

restricted area

has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (zone réglementée)

screening authority

means a person responsible for the screening of persons and goods at an aerodrome set out in the schedule to the CATSA Aerodrome Designation Regulations or at any other place designated by the Minister under subsection 6(1.1) of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act. (administration de contrôle)

screening officer,

except in section 2, has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act. (agent de contrôle)

variant of concern

means a variant of severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2) that is designated as a variant of concern by the World Health Organization. (variant préoccupant)

Interpretation

(2) Unless the context requires otherwise, all other words and expressions used in this Interim Order have the same meaning as in the Regulations.

Conflict

(3) In the event of a conflict between this Interim Order and the Regulations or the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012, the Interim Order prevails.

Definition of mask

(4) For the purposes of this Interim Order, a mask means any mask, including a non-medical mask, that meets all of the following requirements:

• (a) it is made of multiple layers of tightly woven materials such as cotton or linen;
• (b) it completely covers a person’s nose, mouth and chin without gaping;
• (c) it can be secured to a person’s head with ties or ear loops.

Masks — lip reading

(5) Despite paragraph (4)(a), the portion of a mask in front of a wearer’s lips may be made of transparent material that permits lip reading if

• (a) the rest of the mask is made of multiple layers of tightly woven materials such as cotton or linen; and
• (b) there is a tight seal between the transparent material and the rest of the mask.

Definition of fully vaccinated person

(6) For the purposes of this Interim Order, a fully vaccinated person means a person who completed, at least 14 days before the day on which they access aerodrome property or a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services, a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen if

• (a) in the case of a vaccine dosage regimen that uses a COVID-19 vaccine that is authorized for sale in Canada,
  • (i) the vaccine has been administered to the person in accordance with its labelling, or
  • (ii) the Minister of Health determines, on the recommendation of the Chief Public Health Officer, that the regimen is suitable, having regard to the scientific evidence related to the efficacy of that regimen in preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19 or any other factor relevant to preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19; or
• (b) in all other cases,
  • (i) the vaccines of the regimen are authorized for sale in Canada or in another jurisdiction, and
  • (ii) the Minister of Health determines, on the recommendation of the Chief Public Health Officer, that the vaccines and the regimen are suitable, having regard to the scientific evidence related to the efficacy of that regimen and the vaccines in preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19 or any other factor relevant to preventing the introduction or spread of COVID-19.

Interpretation — fully vaccinated person

(7) For greater certainty, for the purposes of the definition fully vaccinated person in subsection (6), a COVID-19 vaccine that is authorized for sale in Canada does not include a similar vaccine sold by the same manufacturer that has been authorized for sale in another jurisdiction.

Notification

Federal, provincial and territorial measures

2 (1) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be subject to measures to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.

Suitable quarantine plan

(2) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person before the person boards the aircraft for the flight that they may be required, under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act, to provide, before boarding the aircraft, to the Minister of Health, a screening officer or a quarantine officer, by the electronic means specified by that Minister, a suitable quarantine plan or, if the person is not required under that order to provide the plan and the evidence, their contact information. The private operator or air carrier must also notify every person that they may be liable to a fine if this requirement applies to them and they fail to comply with it.

Vaccination

(3) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person before the person boards the aircraft for the flight that they may be required, under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act, to provide, before boarding the aircraft or before entering Canada, to the Minister of Health, a screening officer or a quarantine officer, by the electronic means specified by that Minister, information related to their COVID-19 vaccination and evidence of COVID-19 vaccination. The private operator or air carrier must also notify every person that they may be denied permission to board the aircraft and may be liable to a fine if this requirement applies to them and they fail to comply with it.

False confirmation

(4) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide a confirmation referred to in subsection 3(1) that they know to be false or misleading.

Definitions

(5) The following definitions apply in this section.

quarantine officer

means a person designated as a quarantine officer under subsection 5(2) of the Quarantine Act. (agent de quarantaine)

screening officer

has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Quarantine Act. (agent de contrôle)

Confirmation

Federal, provincial and territorial measures

3 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country, every person must confirm to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may be subject to a measure to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.

False confirmation

(2) A person must not provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) that they know to be false or misleading.

Exception

(3) A competent adult may provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult.

Prohibition

4 A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must not permit a person to board the aircraft for the flight if the person is a competent adult and does not provide a confirmation that they are required to provide under subsection 3(1).

Foreign Nationals

Prohibition

5 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a foreign national to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates to Canada departing from any other country.

Exception

6 Section 5 does not apply to a foreign national who is permitted to enter Canada under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act.

Health Check

Non-application

7 Sections 8 to 10 do not apply to either of the following persons:

• (a) a crew member;
• (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.

Health check

8 (1) A private operator or air carrier must conduct a health check of every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates by asking questions to verify whether they exhibit any of the following symptoms:

• (a) a fever;
• (b) a cough;
• (c) breathing difficulties.

Notification

(2) A private operator or air carrier must notify every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may be denied permission to board the aircraft if

• (a) they exhibit a fever and a cough or a fever and breathing difficulties, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their symptoms are not related to COVID-19;
• (b) they have, or have reasonable grounds to suspect they have, COVID-19;
• (c) they have been denied permission to board an aircraft in the previous 10 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19; or
• (d) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, they are the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.

Confirmation

(3) Every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates must confirm to the private operator or air carrier that none of the following situations apply to them:

• (a) the person has, or has reasonable grounds to suspect that they have, COVID-19;
• (b) the person has been denied permission to board an aircraft in the previous 10 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19;
• (c) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, the person is the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.

False confirmation — obligation of private operator or air carrier

(4) The private operator or air carrier must advise every person that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide answers, with respect to the health check or a confirmation, that they know to be false or misleading.

False confirmation — obligations of person

(5) A person who, under subsections (1) and (3), is subjected to a health check and is required to provide a confirmation must

• (a) answer all questions; and
• (b) not provide answers or a confirmation that they know to be false or misleading.

Exception

(6) A competent adult may answer all questions and provide a confirmation on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult and who, under subsections (1) and (3), is subjected to a health check and is required to give a confirmation.

Observations — private operator or air carrier

(7) During the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates, the private operator or air carrier must observe whether any person boarding the aircraft is exhibiting any symptoms referred to in subsection (1).

Prohibition

9 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if

• (a) the person’s answers to the health check questions indicate that they exhibit
  • (i) a fever and cough, or
  • (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
• (b) the private operator or air carrier observes that, as the person is boarding, they exhibit
  • (i) a fever and cough, or
  • (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
• (c) the person’s confirmation under subsection 8(3) indicates that one of the situations described in paragraphs 8(3)(a), (b) or (c) applies to that person; or
• (d) the person is a competent adult and refuses to answer any of the questions asked of them under subsection 8(1) or to give the confirmation under subsection 8(3).

Period of 10 days

10 A person who is not permitted to board an aircraft under section 9 is not permitted to board another aircraft for a period of 10 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.

COVID-19 Molecular Test — Flights to Canada

Application

11 (1) Sections 12 to 17 apply to a private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country and to every person boarding an aircraft for such a flight.

Non-application

(2) Sections 12 to 17 do not apply to persons who are not required under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act to provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.

• 
  Notification
• 12 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may be denied permission to board the aircraft if they are unable to provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.

Evidence — result of test

13 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight, every person must provide to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight evidence that they received either

• (a) a negative result for a COVID-19 molecular test that was performed on a specimen collected no more than 72 hours before the flight’s initial scheduled departure time; or
• (b) a positive result for such a test that was performed on a specimen collected at least 10 days and no more than 180 days before the flight’s initial scheduled departure time.

Location of test — outside Canada

(1.1) The COVID-19 molecular test referred to in paragraph (1)(a) must be performed outside Canada.

Evidence — location of test

(2) For the purposes of paragraph (1)(a) and subsection (1.1), the COVID-19 molecular test must not have been performed in a country where, as determined by the Minister of Health, there is an outbreak of a variant of concern or there are reasonable grounds to believe that there is an outbreak of that variant.

Evidence — alternative testing protocol

13.1 Despite subsections 13(1) and (1.1), a person referred to in section 2.22 of the Order entitled Minimizing the Risk of Exposure to COVID-19 in Canada Order (Quarantine, Isolation and Other Obligations) must, before boarding an aircraft for a flight, provide to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight evidence of a COVID-19 molecular test that was carried out in accordance with an alternative testing protocol referred to in that section.

Evidence — elements

14 Evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test must include

• (a) the person’s name and date of birth;
• (b) the name and civic address of the laboratory that administered the test;
• (c) the date the specimen was collected and the test method used; and
• (d) the test result.

False or misleading evidence

15 A person must not provide evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test that they know to be false or misleading.

Notice to Minister

16 A private operator or air carrier that has reason to believe that a person has provided evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test that is likely to be false or misleading must notify the Minister as soon as feasible of the person’s name and contact information and the date and number of the person’s flight.

Prohibition

17 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if the person does not provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test in accordance with the requirements set out in section 13 or 13.1.

Vaccination — Flights Departing from an Aerodrome in Canada

Application

17.1 (1) Sections 17.2 to 17.17 apply to all of the following persons:

• (a) a person boarding an aircraft for a flight that an air carrier operates departing from an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1;
• (b) a person entering a restricted area at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1 from a non-restricted area to board an aircraft for a flight that an air carrier operates;
• (c) an air carrier operating a flight departing from an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1.

Non-application

(2) Sections 17.2 to 17.17 do not apply to any of the following persons:

• (a) a child who is less than 12 years and four months of age;
• (b) a crew member;
• (c) a person entering a restricted area at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1 from a non-restricted area to board an aircraft for a flight operated by an air carrier
  • (i) only to become a crew member on board another aircraft operated by an air carrier,
  • (ii) after having been a crew member on board an aircraft operated by an air carrier, or
  • (iii) to participate in mandatory training required by an air carrier in relation to the operation of an aircraft, if the person will be required to return to work as a crew member;
• (d) a person who arrives at an aerodrome from any other country on board an aircraft in order to transit to another country and remains in a sterile transit area, as defined in section 2 of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations, of the aerodrome until they leave Canada;
• (e) a person who arrives at an aerodrome on board an aircraft following the diversion of their flight for a safety-related reason, such as adverse weather or an equipment malfunction, and who boards an aircraft for a flight not more than 24 hours after the arrival time of the diverted flight.

Notification

17.2 An air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates that

• (a) they must be a fully vaccinated person or a person referred to in any of paragraphs 17.3(2)(a) to (c) or any of subparagraphs 17.3(2)(d)(i) to (iv) or (e)(i) to (vii);
• (b) they must provide to the air carrier evidence of COVID-19 vaccination demonstrating that they are a fully vaccinated person or evidence that they are a person referred to in any of paragraphs 17.3(2)(a) to (c) or any of subparagraphs 17.3(2)(d)(i) to (iv) or (e)(i) to (vii); and
• (c) if they submit a request referred to in section 17.4, they must do so within the period set out in subsection 17.4(3).

Prohibition — person

17.3 (1) A person is prohibited from boarding an aircraft for a flight or entering a restricted area unless they are a fully vaccinated person.

Exception

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to

• (a) a foreign national, other than a person registered as an Indian under the Indian Act, who is boarding the aircraft for a flight to an aerodrome in Canada if the initial scheduled departure time of that flight is not more than 24 hours after the departure time of a flight taken by the person to Canada from any other country;
• (b) a permanent resident who is boarding the aircraft for a flight to an aerodrome in Canada if the initial scheduled departure time of that flight is not more than 24 hours after the departure time of a flight taken by the person to Canada from any other country for the purpose of entering Canada to become a permanent resident;
• (c) a foreign national who is boarding an aircraft for a flight to a country other than Canada or to an aerodrome in Canada for the purpose of boarding an aircraft for a flight to a country other than Canada and who has received either
  • (i) a negative result for a COVID-19 molecular test that was performed on a specimen collected no more than 72 hours before the flight’s initial scheduled departure time, or
  • (ii) a positive result for such a test that was performed on a specimen collected at least 10 days and no more than 180 days before the flight’s initial scheduled departure time;
• (d) a person who has received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test described in subparagraph (c)(i) or (ii) and who is
  • (i) a person who has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a medical contraindication and who is entitled to be accommodated on that basis under applicable legislation by being permitted to enter the restricted area or to board an aircraft without being a fully vaccinated person,
  • (ii) a person who has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a sincerely held religious belief and who is entitled to be accommodated on that basis under applicable legislation by being permitted to enter the restricted area or to board an aircraft without being a fully vaccinated person,
  • (iii) a person who is boarding an aircraft for a flight for the purpose of attending an appointment for an essential medical service or treatment, or
  • (iv) a competent person who is at least 18 years old and who is boarding an aircraft for a flight for the purpose of accompanying a person referred to in subparagraph (iii) if the person needs to be accompanied because they
    • (A) are under the age of 18 years,
    • (B) have a disability, or
    • (C) need assistance to communicate; or
• (e) a person who has received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test described in subparagraph (c)(i) or (ii) and who is boarding an aircraft for a flight for a purpose other than an optional or discretionary purpose, such as tourism, recreation or leisure, and who is
  • (i) a person who entered Canada at the invitation of the Minister of Health for the purpose of assisting in the COVID-19 response,
  • (ii) a person who is permitted to work in Canada as a provider of emergency services under paragraph 186(t) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations and who entered Canada for the purpose of providing those services,
  • (iii) a person who entered Canada not more than 90 days before the day on which this Interim Order came into effect and who, at the time they sought to enter Canada,
    • (A) held a permanent resident visa issued under subsection 139(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations, and
    • (B) was recognized as a Convention refugee or a person in similar circumstances to those of a Convention refugee within the meaning of subsection 146(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations,
  • (iv) a person who has been issued a temporary resident permit within the meaning of subsection 24(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Act and who entered Canada not more than 90 days before the day on which this Interim Order came into effect as a protected temporary resident under subsection 151.1(2) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations,
  • (v) an accredited person,
  • (vi) a person holding a D-1, O-1 or C-1 visa who entered Canada to take up a post and become an accredited person, or
  • (vii) a diplomatic or consular courier.

Persons — subparagraphs 17.3(2)(d)(i) to (iv)

17.4 (1) An air carrier must issue a document to a person referred to in any of subparagraphs 17.3(2)(d)(i) to (iv) who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates or that is operated on the air carrier’s behalf under a commercial agreement if

• (a) in the case of a person referred to in any of subparagraphs 17.3(2)(d)(i) to (iii), the person submits a request to the air carrier in respect of that flight in accordance with subsections (2) and (3) or such a request is submitted on their behalf;
• (b) in the case of a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(d)(i) or (ii), the air carrier is obligated to accommodate the person on the basis of a medical contraindication or a sincerely held religious belief under applicable legislation by issuing the document; and
• (c) in the case of a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(d)(iv), the person who needs accompaniment submits a request to the air carrier in respect of that flight in accordance with subsections (2) and (3) or such a request is submitted on their behalf.

Request — contents

(2) The request must be signed by the requester and include the following:

• (a) the person’s name and home address and, if the request is made by someone else on the person’s behalf, that person’s name and home address;
• (b) the date and number of the flight as well as the aerodrome of departure and the aerodrome of arrival;
• (c) in the case of a person described in subparagraph 17.3(2)(d)(i),
  • (i) a document issued by the government of a province confirming that the person cannot complete a COVID-19 vaccination regimen due to a medical condition, or
  • (ii) a medical certificate signed by a medical doctor or nurse practitioner who is licensed to practise in Canada certifying that the person cannot complete a COVID-19 vaccination regimen due to a medical condition and the licence number issued by a professional medical licensing body to the medical doctor or nurse practitioner;
• (d) in the case of a person described in subparagraph 17.3(2)(d)(ii), a statement sworn or affirmed by the person before a person appointed as a commissioner of oaths in Canada attesting that the person has not completed a COVID-19 vaccination regimen due to a sincerely held religious belief, including a description of how the belief renders them unable to complete such a regimen; and
• (e) in the case of a person described in subparagraph 17.3(2)(d)(iii), a document that includes
  • (i) the signature of a medical doctor or nurse practitioner who is licensed to practise in Canada,
  • (ii) the licence number issued by a professional medical licensing body to the medical doctor or nurse practitioner,
  • (iii) the date of the appointment for the essential medical service or treatment and the location of the appointment,
  • (iv) the date on which the document was signed, and
  • (v) if the person needs to be accompanied by a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(d)(iv), the name and contact information of that person and the reason that the accompaniment is needed.

Timing of request

(3) The request must be submitted to the air carrier

• (a) in the case of a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(d)(i) or (ii), 21 days before the day on which the flight is initially scheduled to depart; and
• (b) in the case of a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(d)(iii) or (iv), 14 days before the day on which the flight is initially scheduled to depart.

Special circumstances

(4) In special circumstances, an air carrier may issue the document referred to in subsection (1) in response to a request submitted after the period referred to in subsection (3).

Content of document

(5) The document referred to in subsection (1) must include

• (a) a confirmation that the air carrier has verified that the person is a person referred to in any of subparagraphs 17.3(2)(d)(i) to (iv); and
• (b) the date and number of the flight as well as the aerodrome of departure and the aerodrome of arrival.

Record keeping

17.5 (1) An air carrier must keep a record of the following information:

• (a) the number of requests that the air carrier has received in respect of each exception referred to in subparagraphs 17.3(2)(d)(i) to (iv);
• (b) the number of documents issued under subsection 17.4(1); and
• (c) the number of requests that the air carrier denied.

Retention

(2) An air carrier must retain the record for a period of at least 12 months after the day on which the record was created.

Ministerial request

(3) The air carrier must make the record available to the Minister on request.

Copies of requests

17.6 (1) An air carrier must keep a copy of a request for a period of at least 90 days after the day on which the air carrier issued a document under subsection 17.4(1) or refused to issue the document.

Ministerial request

(2) The air carrier must make the copy available to the Minister on request.

Request for evidence — air carrier

17.7 Before permitting a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates, the air carrier must request that the person provide

• (a) evidence of COVID-19 vaccination demonstrating that they are a fully vaccinated person;
• (b) evidence that they are a person referred to in paragraph 17.3(2)(a) or (b); or
• (c) evidence that they are a person referred to in paragraph 17.3(2)(c) or any of subparagraphs 17.3(2)(d)(i) to (iv) or (e)(i) to (vii) and that they have received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.

[17.8 reserved]

Provision of evidence

17.9 A person must, at the request of an air carrier, provide to the air carrier the evidence referred to in paragraph 17.7(a), (b) or (c).

Evidence of vaccination — elements

17.10 (1) Evidence of COVID-19 vaccination must be evidence issued by a non-governmental entity that is authorized to issue the evidence of COVID-19 vaccination in the jurisdiction in which the vaccine was administered, by a government or by an entity authorized by a government, and must contain the following information:

• (a) the name of the person who received the vaccine;
• (b) the name of the government or of the entity;
• (c) the brand name or any other information that identifies the vaccine that was administered; and
• (d) the dates on which the vaccine was administered or, if the evidence is one document issued for both doses and the document specifies only the date on which the most recent dose was administered, that date.

Evidence of vaccination — translation

(2) The evidence of COVID-19 vaccination must be in English or French and any translation into English or French must be a certified translation.

Evidence of COVID-19 molecular test — result

17.11 (1) A result for a COVID-19 molecular test is a result described in subparagraph 17.3(2)(c)(i) or (ii).

Evidence of COVID-19 molecular test — elements

(2) Evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test must include the elements set out in paragraphs 14(a) to (d).

Person — paragraph 17.3(2)(a)

17.12 (1) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in paragraph 17.3(2)(a) must be

• (a) a travel itinerary or boarding pass that shows that the initial scheduled departure time of the flight to an aerodrome in Canada is not more than 24 hours after the departure time of a flight taken by the person to Canada from any other country; and
• (b) their passport or other travel document issued by their country of citizenship or nationality.

Person — paragraph 17.3(2)(b)

(2) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in paragraph 17.3(2)(b) must be

• (a) a travel itinerary or boarding pass that shows that the initial scheduled departure time of the flight to an aerodrome in Canada is not more than 24 hours after the departure time of the flight taken by the person to Canada from any other country; and
• (b) a document entitled “Confirmation of Permanent Residence” issued by the Department of Citizenship and Immigration that confirms that the person became a permanent resident on entry to Canada after the flight taken by the person to Canada from any other country.

Person — paragraph 17.3(2)(c)

(3) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in paragraph 17.3(2)(c) must be

• (a) a travel itinerary or boarding pass that shows that the person is boarding an aircraft for a flight to a country other than Canada or to an aerodrome in Canada for the purpose of boarding an aircraft for a flight to a country other than Canada; and
• (b) their passport or other travel document issued by their country of citizenship or nationality.

Person — subparagraphs 17.3(2)(d)(i) to (iv)

(4) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in any of subparagraphs 17.3(2)(d)(i) to (iv) must be a document issued by an air carrier under subsection 17.4(1) in respect of the flight for which the person is boarding the aircraft or entering the restricted area.

Person — subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(i)

(5) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(i) must be a document issued by the Minister of Health that indicates that the person was asked to enter Canada for the purpose of assisting in the COVID-19 response.

Person — subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(ii)

(6) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(ii) must be a document from a government or non-governmental entity that indicates that the person was asked to enter Canada for the purpose of providing emergency services under paragraph 186(t) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations.

Person — subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(iii)

(7) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(iii) must be a document issued by the Department of Citizenship and Immigration that confirms that the person has been recognized as a Convention refugee or a person in similar circumstances to those of a Convention refugee within the meaning of subsection 146(1) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations.

Person — subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(iv)

(8) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(iv) must be a document issued by the Department of Citizenship and Immigration that confirms that the person entered Canada as a protected temporary resident under subsection 151.1(2) of the Immigration and Refugee Protection Regulations.

Person — subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(v)

(9) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(v) must be their passport containing a valid diplomatic, consular, official or special representative acceptance issued by the Chief of Protocol for the Department of Foreign Affairs, Trade and Development.

Person — subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(vi)

(10) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(vi) must be the person’s D-1, O-1 or C-1 visa.

Person — subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(vii)

(11) Evidence that the person is a person referred to in subparagraph 17.3(2)(e)(vii) must be

• (a) in the case of a diplomatic courier, the official document confirming their status referred to in Article 27 of the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations, as set out in Schedule I to the Foreign Missions and International Organizations Act; and
• (b) in the case of a consular courier, the official document confirming their status referred to in Article 35 of the Vienna Convention on Consular Relations, as set out in Schedule II to that Act.

False or misleading information

17.13 (1) A person must not submit a request referred to in section 17.4 that contains information that they know to be false or misleading.

False or misleading evidence

(2) A person must not provide evidence that they know to be false or misleading.

Notice to Minister — information

17.14 (1) An air carrier that has reason to believe that a person has submitted a request referred to in section 17.4 that contains information that is likely to be false or misleading must notify the Minister of the following not more than 72 hours after receiving the request:

• (a) the person’s name and contact information;
• (b) the date and number of the person’s flight; and
• (c) the reason the air carrier believes that the information is likely to be false or misleading.

Notice to Minister — evidence

(2) An air carrier that has reason to believe that a person has provided evidence that is likely to be false or misleading must notify the Minister of the following not more than 72 hours after the provision of the evidence:

• (a) the person’s name and contact information;
• (b) the date and number of the person’s flight; and
• (c) the reason the air carrier believes that the evidence is likely to be false or misleading.

Prohibition — air carrier

17.15 An air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates if the person does not provide the evidence they are required to provide under section 17.9.

[17.16 reserved]

Record keeping — air carrier

17.17 (1) An air carrier must keep a record of the following information in respect of a person each time the person is denied permission to board an aircraft for a flight under section 17.15:

• (a) the person’s name and contact information, including the person’s home address, telephone number and email address;
• (b) the date and flight number;
• (c) the reason why the person was denied permission to board the aircraft; and
• (d) whether the person had been issued a document under subsection 17.4(1) in respect of the flight.

Retention

(2) The air carrier must retain the record for a period of at least 12 months after the date of the flight.

Ministerial request

(3) The air carrier must make the record available to the Minister on request.

[17.18 and 17.19 reserved]

Policy Respecting Mandatory Vaccination

Application

17.20 Sections 17.21 to 17.25 apply to

• (a) the operator of an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1;
• (b) an air carrier operating a flight departing from an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1, other than an air carrier who operates a commercial air service under Subpart 1 of Part VII of the Regulations; and
• (c) NAV CANADA.

Definition of relevant person

17.21 (1) For the purposes of sections 17.22 to 17.25, relevant person, in respect of an entity referred to in section 17.20, means a person whose duties involve an activity described in subsection (2) and who is

• (a) an employee of the entity;
• (b) an employee of the entity’s contractor or agent or mandatary;
• (c) a person hired by the entity to provide a service;
• (d) the entity’s lessee or an employee of the entity’s lessee, if the property that is subject to the lease is part of aerodrome property; or
• (e) a person permitted by the entity to access aerodrome property or, in the case of NAV CANADA, a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services.

Activities

(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), the activities are

• (a) conducting or directly supporting activities that are related to aerodrome operations or commercial flight operations — such as aircraft refuelling services, aircraft maintenance and repair services, baggage handling services, supply services for the operator of an aerodrome, an air carrier or NAV CANADA, fire prevention services, runway and taxiway maintenance services or de-icing services — and that take place on aerodrome property or at a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services;
• (b) interacting in-person on aerodrome property with a person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight;
• (c) engaging in tasks, on aerodrome property or at a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services, that are intended to reduce the risk of transmission of the virus that causes COVID-19; and
• (d) accessing a restricted area at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1.

Comprehensive policy — operators of aerodromes

17.22 (1) The operator of an aerodrome must establish and implement a comprehensive policy respecting mandatory COVID-19 vaccination in accordance with subsection (2).

Policy — content

(2) The policy must

• (a) require that a person who is 12 years and four months of age or older be a fully vaccinated person before accessing aerodrome property, unless they are a person
  • (i) who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that an air carrier operates,
  • (ii) who does not intend to board an aircraft for a flight and who is accessing aerodrome property for leisure purposes or to accompany a person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight,
  • (iii) who is the holder of an employee identification document issued by a department or departmental corporation listed in Schedule 2 or a member identification document issued by the Canadian Forces, or
  • (iv) who is delivering equipment or providing services within a restricted area that are urgently needed and critical to aerodrome operations and who has obtained an authorization from the operator of the aerodrome before doing so;
• (b) despite paragraph (a), allow a person who is subject to the policy and who is not a fully vaccinated person to access aerodrome property if the person has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a medical contraindication or their sincerely held religious belief;
• (c) provide for a procedure for verifying evidence provided by a person referred to in paragraph (b) that demonstrates that the person has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a medical contraindication or their sincerely held religious belief;
• (d) provide for a procedure for issuing to a person whose evidence has been verified under the procedure referred to in paragraph (c) a document confirming that they are a person referred to in paragraph (b);
• (e) provide for a procedure that ensures that a person subject to the policy provides, on request, the following evidence before accessing aerodrome property:
  • (i) in the case of a fully vaccinated person, the evidence of COVID-19 vaccination referred to in section 17.10, and
  • (ii) in the case of a person referred to in paragraph (d), the document issued to the person under the procedure referred to in that paragraph;
• (f) provide for a procedure that allows a person to whom sections 17.31 to 17.40 apply — other than a person referred to in subsection 17.34(2) — who is a fully vaccinated person or a person referred to in paragraph (b) and who is unable to provide the evidence referred to in paragraph (e) to temporarily access aerodrome property if they provide a declaration confirming that they are a fully vaccinated person or that they have been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph (d);
• (g) provide for a procedure that ensures that a person referred to in paragraph (d) is tested for COVID-19 at least twice every week;
• (h) provide for a procedure that ensures that a person who receives a positive result for a COVID-19 test taken under the procedure referred to in paragraph (g) is prohibited from accessing aerodrome property until the end of the period for which the public health authority of the province or territory in which the aerodrome is located requires them to isolate after receiving a positive result or until the person is not exhibiting any of the symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1), whichever is later; and
• (i) provide for a procedure that ensures that a person referred to in paragraph (h) who undergoes a COVID-19 molecular test is exempt from the procedure referred to in paragraph (g) for a period of 180 days after the person received a positive result from that test.

Medical contraindication

(3) For the purposes of paragraphs (2)(c) and (d), the policy must provide that a document is to be issued to a person confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of a medical contraindication only if they provide a medical certificate from a medical doctor or nurse practitioner who is licensed to practise in Canada certifying that the person cannot complete a COVID-19 vaccination regimen due to a medical condition and specifying whether the condition is permanent or temporary.

Religious belief

(4) For the purposes of paragraphs (2)(c) and (d), the policy must provide that a document is to be issued to a person confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of their sincerely held religious belief only if they submit a statement sworn or affirmed by them attesting that they have not completed a COVID-19 vaccination regimen due to their sincerely held religious belief.

Canadian Human Rights Act

(5) For the purposes of paragraphs (2)(c) and (d), in the case of an employee of the operator of an aerodrome or a person hired by the operator of an aerodrome to provide a service, the policy must provide that a document is to be issued to the employee or person confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of their sincerely held religious belief only if the operator of the aerodrome is obligated to accommodate them on that basis under the Canadian Human Rights Act by issuing such a document.

Applicable legislation

(6) For the purposes of paragraphs (2)(c) and (d), in the following cases, the policy must provide that a document is to be issued to the employee confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of their sincerely held religious belief only if they would be entitled to such an accommodation on that basis under applicable legislation:

• (a) in the case of an employee of the operator of an aerodrome’s contractor or agent or mandatary; and
• (b) in the case of an employee of the operator of an aerodrome’s lessee, if the property that is subject to the lease is part of aerodrome property.

Comprehensive policy — air carriers and NAV CANADA

17.23 Section 17.24 does not apply to an air carrier or NAV CANADA if that entity

• (a) establishes and implements a comprehensive policy respecting mandatory COVID-19 vaccination in accordance with paragraphs 17.24(2)(a) to (h) and subsections 17.24(3) to (6); and
• (b) has procedures in place to ensure that while a relevant person is carrying out their duties related to commercial flight operations, no in-person interactions occur between the relevant person and an unvaccinated person who has not been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph 17.24(2)(d) and who is
  • (i) an employee of the entity,
  • (ii) an employee of the entity’s contractor or agent or mandatary,
  • (iii) a person hired by the entity to provide a service, or
  • (iv) the entity’s lessee or an employee of the entity’s lessee, if the property that is subject to the lease is part of aerodrome property.

Targeted policy — air carriers and NAV CANADA

17.24 (1) An air carrier or NAV CANADA must establish and implement a targeted policy respecting mandatory COVID-19 vaccination in accordance with subsection (2).

Policy — content

(2) The policy must

• (a) require that a relevant person, other than the holder of an employee identification document issued by a department or departmental corporation listed in Schedule 2 or a member identification document issued by the Canadian Forces, be a fully vaccinated person before accessing aerodrome property or, in the case of NAV CANADA, a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services;
• (b) despite paragraph (a), allow a relevant person who is subject to the policy and who is not a fully vaccinated person to access aerodrome property or, in the case of NAV CANADA, a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services, if the relevant person has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a medical contraindication or their sincerely held religious belief;
• (c) provide for a procedure for verifying evidence provided by a relevant person referred to in paragraph (b) that demonstrates that the relevant person has not completed a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen due to a medical contraindication or their sincerely held religious belief;
• (d) provide for a procedure for issuing to a relevant person whose evidence has been verified under the procedure referred to in paragraph (c) a document confirming that they are a relevant person referred to in paragraph (b);
• (e) provide for a procedure that ensures that a relevant person subject to the policy provides, on request, the following evidence before accessing aerodrome property:
  • (i) in the case of a fully vaccinated person, the evidence of COVID-19 vaccination referred to in section 17.10, and
  • (ii) in the case of a relevant person referred to in paragraph (d), the document issued to the relevant person under the procedure referred to in that paragraph;
• (f) provide for a procedure that ensures that a relevant person referred to in paragraph (d) is tested for COVID-19 at least twice every week;
• (g) provide for a procedure that ensures that a relevant person who receives a positive result for a COVID-19 test under the procedure referred to in paragraph (f) is prohibited from accessing aerodrome property until the end of the period for which the public health authority of the province or territory in which the aerodrome is located requires them to isolate after receiving a positive test result or until the relevant person is not exhibiting any of the symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1), whichever is later;
• (h) provide for a procedure that ensures that a relevant person referred to in paragraph (g) who undergoes a COVID-19 molecular test is exempt from the procedure referred to in paragraph (f) for a period of 180 days after the relevant person received a positive result from that test;
• (i) set out procedures for reducing the risk that a relevant person will be exposed to the virus that causes COVID-19 due to an in-person interaction, occurring on aerodrome property or at a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services, with an unvaccinated person who has not been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph (d) and who is a person referred to in any of subparagraphs 17.23(b)(i) to (iv), which procedures may include protocols related to
  • (i) the vaccination of persons, other than relevant persons, who access aerodrome property or a location where NAV CANADA provides civil air navigation services,
  • (ii) physical distancing and the wearing of masks, and
  • (iii) reducing the frequency and duration of in-person interactions;
• (j) establish a procedure for collecting the following information with respect to an in-person interaction related to commercial flight operations between a relevant person and a person referred to in any of subparagraphs 17.23(b)(i) to (iv) who is unvaccinated and has not been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph (d) or whose vaccination status is unknown:
  • (i) the time, date and location of the interaction, and
  • (ii) contact information for the relevant person and the other person;
• (k) establish a procedure for recording the following information and submitting it to the Minister on request:
  • (i) the number of relevant persons who are subject to the entity’s policy,
  • (ii) the number of relevant persons who require access to a restricted area,
  • (iii) the number of relevant persons who are fully vaccinated persons and those who are not,
  • (iv) the number of hours during which relevant persons were unable to fulfill their duties related to commercial flight operations due to COVID-19,
  • (v) the number of relevant persons who have been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph (d), the reason for issuing the document and a confirmation that the relevant persons have submitted evidence of COVID-19 tests taken in accordance with the procedure referred to in paragraph (f),
  • (vi) the number of relevant persons who refuse to comply with a requirement referred to in paragraph (a), (f) or (g),
  • (vii) the number of relevant persons who were denied entry to a restricted area because of a refusal to comply with a requirement referred to in paragraph (a), (f) or (g),
  • (viii) the number of persons referred to in subparagraphs 17.23(b)(i) to (iv) who are unvaccinated and who have not been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph (d), or whose vaccination status is unknown, who have an in-person interaction related to commercial flight operations with a relevant person and a description of any procedures implemented to reduce the risk that a relevant person will be exposed to the virus that causes COVID-19 due to such an interaction, and
  • (ix) the number of instances in which the air carrier or NAV CANADA, as applicable, is made aware that a person with respect to whom information was collected under paragraph (j) received a positive result for a COVID-19 test, the number of relevant persons tested for COVID-19 as a result of this information, the results of those tests and a description of any impacts on commercial flight operations; and
• (l) require the air carrier or NAV CANADA, as applicable, to keep the information referred to in paragraph (k) for a period of at least 12 months after the date that the information was recorded.

Medical contraindication

(3) For the purposes of paragraphs (2)(c) and (d), the policy must provide that a document is to be issued to a relevant person confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of a medical contraindication only if they provide a medical certificate from a medical doctor or nurse practitioner who is licensed to practise in Canada certifying that the relevant person cannot complete a COVID-19 vaccination regimen due to a medical condition and specifying whether the condition is permanent or temporary.

Religious belief

(4) For the purposes of paragraphs (2)(c) and (d), the policy must provide that a document is to be issued to a relevant person confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of their sincerely held religious belief only if they submit a statement sworn or affirmed by them attesting that they have not completed a COVID-19 vaccination regimen due to their sincerely held religious belief.

Canadian Human Rights Act

(5) For the purposes of paragraphs (2)(c) and (d), in the case of an employee of an entity or a relevant person hired by an entity to provide a service, the policy must provide that a document is to be issued to the employee or the relevant person confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of their sincerely held religious belief only if the entity is obligated to accommodate the relevant person on that basis under the Canadian Human Rights Act by issuing such a document.

Applicable legislation

(6) For the purposes of paragraphs (2)(c) and (d), in the following cases, the policy must provide that a document is to be issued to the employee confirming that they did not complete a COVID-19 vaccine dosage regimen on the basis of their sincerely held religious belief only if they would be entitled to such an accommodation on that basis under applicable legislation:

• (a) in the case of an employee of an entity’s contractor or agent or mandatary; and
• (b) in the case of an employee of an entity’s lessee, if the property that is subject to the lease is part of aerodrome property.

Ministerial request — policy

17.25 (1) The operator of an aerodrome, an air carrier or NAV CANADA must make a copy of the policy referred to in section 17.22, 17.23 or 17.24, as applicable, available to the Minister on request.

Ministerial request — implementation

(2) The operator of an aerodrome, an air carrier or NAV CANADA must make information related to the implementation of the policy referred to in section 17.22, 17.23 or 17.24, as applicable, available to the Minister on request.

[17.26 to 17.29 reserved]

Vaccination — Aerodromes in Canada

Application

17.30 (1) Sections 17.31 to 17.40 apply to all of the following persons:

• (a) subject to paragraph (c), a person entering a restricted area at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1 from a non-restricted area for a reason other than to board an aircraft for a flight operated by an air carrier;
• (b) a crew member entering a restricted area at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1 from a non-restricted area to board an aircraft for a flight operated by an air carrier under Subpart 1, 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII of the Regulations;
• (c) a person entering a restricted area at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1 from a non-restricted area to board an aircraft for a flight
  • (i) only to become a crew member on board another aircraft operated by an air carrier under Subpart 1, 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII of the Regulations,
  • (ii) after having been a crew member on board an aircraft operated by an air carrier under Subpart 1, 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII of the Regulations, or
  • (iii) to participate in mandatory training required by an air carrier in relation to the operation of an aircraft operated under Subpart 1, 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII of the Regulations, if the person will be required to return to work as a crew member;
• (d) a screening authority at an aerodrome where persons other than passengers are screened or can be screened;
• (e) the operator of an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1.

Non-application

(2) Sections 17.31 to 17.40 do not apply to any of the following persons:

• (a) a child who is less than 12 years and four months of age;
• (b) a person who arrives at an aerodrome on board an aircraft following the diversion of their flight for a safety-related reason, such as adverse weather or an equipment malfunction, and who enters a restricted area to board an aircraft for a flight not more than 24 hours after the arrival time of the diverted flight;
• (c) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
• (d) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency;
• (e) the holder of an employee identification document issued by a department or departmental corporation listed in Schedule 2 or a member identification document issued by the Canadian Forces; or
• (f) a person who is delivering equipment or providing services within a restricted area that are urgently needed and critical to aerodrome operations and who has obtained an authorization from the operator of the aerodrome before doing so.

Prohibition

17.31 (1) A person must not enter a restricted area unless they are a fully vaccinated person.

Exception

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to a person who has been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph 17.22(2)(d) or 17.24(2)(d).

Provision of evidence

17.32 A person must provide to a screening authority or the operator of an aerodrome, on their request,

• (a) in the case of a fully vaccinated person, the evidence of COVID-19 vaccination referred to in section 17.10; and
• (b) in the case of a person who has been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph 17.22(2)(d) or 17.24(2)(d), the document issued to the person.

Request for evidence

17.33 Before permitting a certain number of persons, as specified by the Minister and selected on a random basis, to enter a restricted area, the screening authority must request that each of those persons, when they present themselves for screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint or a passenger screening checkpoint, provide the evidence referred to in paragraph 17.32(a) or (b).

Declaration

17.34 (1) If a person who is a fully vaccinated person or who has been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph 17.22(2)(d) is unable, following a request to provide evidence under section 17.33, to provide the evidence, the person may

• (a) sign a declaration confirming that they are a fully vaccinated person or that they have been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph 17.22(2)(d); or
• (b) if the person has signed a declaration under paragraph (a) no more than seven days before the day on which the request to provide evidence is made, provide that declaration.

Exception

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply to the holder of a document of entitlement that expires within seven days after the day on which the request to provide evidence under section 17.33 is made.

Notification to aerodrome operator

(3) If a person signs a declaration referred to in paragraph (1)(a), the screening authority must notify the operator of the aerodrome as soon as feasible of the person’s name, the date on which the declaration was signed and, if applicable, the number or identifier of the person’s document of entitlement.

Provision of evidence

(4) A person who signed a declaration under paragraph (1)(a) must provide the evidence referred to in paragraph 17.32(a) or (b) to the operator of the aerodrome within seven days after the day on which the declaration is signed.

Suspension of restricted area access

(5) An operator of an aerodrome must ensure that the restricted area access of a person who does not provide the evidence within seven days as required under subsection (4) is suspended until the person provides the evidence.

Record keeping — suspension

17.35 (1) The operator of the aerodrome must keep a record of the following information in respect of a person each time the restricted area access of the person is suspended under subsection 17.34(5):

• (a) the person’s name;
• (b) the number or identifier of the person’s document of entitlement, if applicable;
• (c) the date of the suspension; and
• (d) the reason for the suspension.

Retention

(2) The operator must retain the record for a period of at least 12 months after the day on which the record was created.

Ministerial request

(3) The operator of the aerodrome must make the record available to the Minister on request.

Prohibition

17.36 (1) A screening authority must deny a person entry to a restricted area if, following a request to provide evidence under section 17.33, the person does not provide the evidence or, if applicable, does not sign or provide a declaration under subsection 17.34(1).

Notification to aerodrome operator

(2) If a screening authority denies a person entry to a restricted area, it must notify the operator of the aerodrome as soon as feasible of the person’s name, the date on which the person was denied entry and, if applicable, the number or identifier of the person’s document of entitlement.

Suspension of restricted area access

(3) An operator of an aerodrome must ensure that the restricted area access of a person who was denied entry under subsection (1) is suspended until the person provides the requested evidence or the signed declaration.

False or misleading evidence

17.37 A person must not provide evidence that they know to be false or misleading.

Notice to Minister

17.38 A screening authority or the operator of an aerodrome that has reason to believe that a person has provided evidence that is likely to be false or misleading must notify the Minister of the following not more than 72 hours after the provision of the evidence:

• (a) the person’s name;
• (b) the number or identifier of the person’s document of entitlement, if applicable; and
• (c) the reason the screening authority or the operator of an aerodrome believes that the evidence is likely to be false or misleading.

Record keeping — denial of entry

17.39 (1) A screening authority must keep a record of the following information in respect of a person each time the person is denied entry to a restricted area under subsection 17.36(1):

• (a) the person’s name;
• (b) the number or identifier of the person’s document of entitlement, if applicable;
• (c) the date on which the person was denied entry and the location; and
• (d) the reason why the person was denied entry to the restricted area.

Retention

(2) The screening authority must retain the record for a period of at least 12 months after the day on which the record was created.

Ministerial request

(3) The screening authority must make the record available to the Minister on request.

Requirement to establish and implement

17.40 The operator of an aerodrome must ensure that a document of entitlement is only issued to a fully vaccinated person or a person who has been issued a document under the procedure referred to in paragraph 17.22(2)(d).

Masks

Non-application

18 (1) Sections 19 to 24 do not apply to any of the following persons:

• (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
• (b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a mask;
• (c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a mask for a medical reason;
• (d) a person who is unconscious;
• (e) a person who is unable to remove their mask without assistance;
• (f) a crew member;
• (g) a gate agent.

Mask readily available

(2) An adult responsible for a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age must ensure that a mask is readily available to the child before boarding an aircraft for a flight.

Wearing of mask

(3) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a mask when wearing one is required under section 21 and complies with any instructions given by a gate agent under section 22 if the child

• (a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a mask; or
• (b) is at least six years of age.

Notification

19 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person must

• (a) be in possession of a mask before boarding;
• (b) wear the mask at all times during the boarding process, during the flight and from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building; and
• (c) comply with any instructions given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a mask.

Obligation to possess mask

20 Every person who is at least six years of age must be in possession of a mask before boarding an aircraft for a flight.

Wearing of mask — persons

21 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a person to wear a mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.

Exceptions — person

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply

• (a) when the safety of the person could be endangered by wearing a mask;
• (b) when the person is drinking or eating, unless a crew member instructs the person to wear a mask;
• (c) when the person is taking oral medications;
• (d) when a gate agent or a crew member authorizes the removal of the mask to address unforeseen circumstances or the person’s special needs; or
• (e) when a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member authorizes the removal of the mask to verify the person’s identity.

Exceptions — flight deck

(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to any of the following persons when they are on the flight deck:

• (a) a Department of Transport air carrier inspector;
• (b) an inspector of the civil aviation authority of the state where the aircraft is registered;
• (c) an employee of the private operator or air carrier who is not a crew member and who is performing their duties;
• (d) a pilot, flight engineer or flight attendant employed by a wholly owned subsidiary or a code share partner of the air carrier;
• (e) a person who has expertise related to the aircraft, its equipment or its crew members and who is required to be on the flight deck to provide a service to the private operator or air carrier.

Compliance

22 A person must comply with any instructions given by a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member with respect to wearing a mask.

Prohibition — private operator or air carrier

23 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if

• (a) the person is not in possession of a mask; or
• (b) the person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a mask.

Refusal to comply

24 (1) If, during a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates, a person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a crew member with respect to wearing a mask, the private operator or air carrier must

• (a) keep a record of
  • (i) the date and flight number,
  • (ii) the person’s name, date of birth and contact information, including the person’s home address, telephone number and email address,
  • (iii) the person’s seat number, and
  • (iv) the circumstances related to the refusal to comply; and
• (b) inform the Minister as soon as feasible of any record created under paragraph (a).

Retention period

(2) The private operator or air carrier must retain the record for a period of at least 12 months after the date of the flight.

Ministerial request

(3) The private operator or air carrier must make the record available to the Minister on request.

Wearing of mask — crew member

25 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a crew member to wear a mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.

Exceptions — crew member

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply

• (a) when the safety of the crew member could be endangered by wearing a mask;
• (b) when the wearing of a mask by the crew member could interfere with operational requirements or the safety of the flight; or
• (c) when the crew member is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.

Exception — flight deck

(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to a crew member who is a flight crew member when they are on the flight deck.

Wearing of mask — gate agent

26 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a gate agent to wear a mask during the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.

Exceptions

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply

• (a) when the safety of the gate agent could be endangered by wearing a mask; or
• (b) when the gate agent is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.

Exception — physical barrier

(3) During the boarding process, subsection (1) does not apply to a gate agent if the gate agent is separated from any other person by a physical barrier that allows the gate agent and the other person to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.

Deplaning

Non-application

27 (1) Section 28 does not apply to any of the following persons:

• (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
• (b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a mask;
• (c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a mask for a medical reason;
• (d) a person who is unconscious;
• (e) a person who is unable to remove their mask without assistance;
• (f) a person who is on a flight that originates in Canada and is destined to another country.

Wearing of mask

(2) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a mask when wearing one is required under section 28 if the child

• (a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a mask; or
• (b) is at least six years of age.

Wearing of mask — person

28 A person who is on board an aircraft must wear a mask at all times from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building, including by a passenger loading bridge.

Screening Authority

Non-application

29 (1) Sections 30 to 33 do not apply to any of the following persons:

• (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
• (b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a mask;
• (c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a mask for a medical reason;
• (d) a person who is unconscious;
• (e) a person who is unable to remove their mask without assistance;
• (f) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
• (g) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency.

Wearing of mask

(2) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a mask when wearing one is required under subsection 30(2) and removes it when required by a screening officer to do so under subsection 30(3) if the child

• (a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a mask; or
• (b) is at least six years of age.

Requirement — passenger screening checkpoint

30 (1) A screening authority must notify a person who is subject to screening at a passenger screening checkpoint that they must wear a mask at all times during screening.

Wearing of mask — person

(2) Subject to subsection (3), a person who is the subject of screening referred to in subsection (1) must wear a mask at all times during screening.

Requirement to remove mask

(3) A person who is required by a screening officer to remove their mask during screening must do so.

Wearing of mask — screening officer

(4) A screening officer must wear a mask at a passenger screening checkpoint when conducting the screening of a person if, during the screening, the screening officer is two metres or less from the person being screened.

Requirement — non-passenger screening checkpoint

31 (1) A person who presents themselves at a non-passenger screening checkpoint to enter into a restricted area must wear a mask at all times.

Wearing of mask — screening officer

(2) Subject to subsection (3), a screening officer must wear a mask at all times at a non-passenger screening checkpoint.

Exceptions

(3) Subsection (2) does not apply

• (a) when the safety of the screening officer could be endangered by wearing a mask; or
• (b) when the screening officer is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.

Exception — physical barrier

32 Sections 30 and 31 do not apply to a person, including a screening officer, if the person is two metres or less from another person and both persons are separated by a physical barrier that allows them to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.

Prohibition — passenger screening checkpoint

33 (1) A screening authority must not permit a person who has been notified to wear a mask and refuses to do so to pass beyond a passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.

Prohibition — non-passenger screening checkpoint

(2) A screening authority must not permit a person who refuses to wear a mask to pass beyond a non-passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.

Designated Provisions

Designation

34 (1) The provisions of this Interim Order set out in column 1 of Schedule 3 are designated as provisions the contravention of which may be dealt with under and in accordance with the procedure set out in sections 7.7 to 8.2 of the Act.

Maximum amounts

(2) The amounts set out in column 2 of Schedule 3 are the maximum amounts of the penalty payable in respect of a contravention of the designated provisions set out in column 1.

Notice

(3) A notice referred to in subsection 7.7(1) of the Act must be in writing and must specify

• (a) the particulars of the alleged contravention;
• (b) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent has the option of paying the amount specified in the notice or filing with the Tribunal a request for a review of the alleged contravention or the amount of the penalty;
• (c) that payment of the amount specified in the notice will be accepted by the Minister in satisfaction of the amount of the penalty for the alleged contravention and that no further proceedings under Part I of the Act will be taken against the person on whom the notice in respect of that contravention is served or to whom it is sent;
• (d) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be provided with an opportunity consistent with procedural fairness and natural justice to present evidence before the Tribunal and make representations in relation to the alleged contravention if the person files a request for a review with the Tribunal; and
• (e) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be considered to have committed the contravention set out in the notice if they fail to pay the amount specified in the notice and fail to file a request for a review with the Tribunal within the prescribed period.

Repeal

35 The Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 54, made on February 10, 2022, is repealed.

SCHEDULE 1

(Subsections 1(1) and 17.1(1) and paragraphs 17.1(2)(c), 17.20(a) and (b), 17.21(2)(d) and 17.30(1)(a) to (c) and (e))

Aerodromes

Name	ICAO Location Indicator
Abbotsford International	CYXX
Alma	CYTF
Bagotville	CYBG
Baie-Comeau	CYBC
Bathurst	CZBF
Brandon Municipal	CYBR
Calgary International	CYYC
Campbell River	CYBL
Castlegar (West Kootenay Regional)	CYCG
Charlo	CYCL
Charlottetown	CYYG
Chibougamau/Chapais	CYMT
Churchill Falls	CZUM
Comox	CYQQ
Cranbrook (Canadian Rockies International)	CYXC
Dawson Creek	CYDQ
Deer Lake	CYDF
Edmonton International	CYEG
Fort McMurray	CYMM
Fort St. John	CYXJ
Fredericton International	CYFC
Gander International	CYQX
Gaspé	CYGP
Goose Bay	CYYR
Grande Prairie	CYQU
Greater Moncton International	CYQM
Halifax (Robert L. Stanfield International)	CYHZ
Hamilton (John C. Munro International)	CYHM
Îles-de-la-Madeleine	CYGR
Iqaluit	CYFB
Kamloops	CYKA
Kelowna	CYLW
Kingston	CYGK
Kitchener/Waterloo Regional	CYKF
La Grande Rivière	CYGL
Lethbridge	CYQL
Lloydminster	CYLL
London	CYXU
Lourdes-de-Blanc-Sablon	CYBX
Medicine Hat	CYXH
Mont-Joli	CYYY
Montréal International (Mirabel)	CYMX
Montréal (Montréal — Pierre Elliott Trudeau International)	CYUL
Montréal (St. Hubert)	CYHU
Nanaimo	CYCD
North Bay	CYYB
Ottawa (Macdonald-Cartier International)	CYOW
Penticton	CYYF
Prince Albert (Glass Field)	CYPA
Prince George	CYXS
Prince Rupert	CYPR
Québec (Jean Lesage International)	CYQB
Quesnel	CYQZ
Red Deer Regional	CYQF
Regina International	CYQR
Rivière-Rouge/Mont-Tremblant International	CYFJ
Rouyn-Noranda	CYUY
Saint John	CYSJ
Sarnia (Chris Hadfield)	CYZR
Saskatoon (John G. Diefenbaker International)	CYXE
Sault Ste. Marie	CYAM
Sept-Îles	CYZV
Smithers	CYYD
St. Anthony	CYAY
St. John’s International	CYYT
Stephenville	CYJT
Sudbury	CYSB
Sydney (J.A. Douglas McCurdy)	CYQY
Terrace	CYXT
Thompson	CYTH
Thunder Bay	CYQT
Timmins (Victor M. Power)	CYTS
Toronto (Billy Bishop Toronto City)	CYTZ
Toronto (Lester B. Pearson International)	CYYZ
Toronto/Buttonville Municipal	CYKZ
Val-d’Or	CYVO
Vancouver (Coal Harbour)	CYHC
Vancouver International	CYVR
Victoria International	CYYJ
Wabush	CYWK
Whitehorse (Erik Nielsen International)	CYXY
Williams Lake	CYWL
Windsor	CYQG
Winnipeg (James Armstrong Richardson International)	CYWG
Yellowknife	CYZF

SCHEDULE 2

(Subparagraph 17.22(2)(a)(iii) and paragraphs 17.24(2)(a) and 17.30(2)(e))

Departments and Departmental Corporations

Name

• Canada Border Services Agency
• Canadian Security Intelligence Service
• Correctional Service of Canada
• Department of Agriculture and Agri-Food
• Department of Employment and Social Development
• Department of Fisheries and Oceans
• Department of Health
• Department of National Defence
• Department of the Environment
• Department of Public Safety and Emergency Preparedness
• Department of Transport
• Public Health Agency of Canada
• Royal Canadian Mounted Police

SCHEDULE 3

(Subsections 34(1) and (2))

Designated Provisions

Column 1 Designated Provision	Column 2 Maximum Amount of Penalty ($)
	Individual	Corporation
Subsection 2(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 2(2)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 2(3)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 2(4)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 3(1)	5,000
Subsection 3(2)	5,000
Section 4	5,000	25,000
Section 5	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(2)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(3)	5,000
Subsection 8(4)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(5)	5,000
Subsection 8(7)	5,000	25,000
Section 9	5,000	25,000
Section 10	5,000
Section 12	5,000	25,000
Subsection 13(1)	5,000
Section 13.1	5,000
Section 15	5,000
Section 16	5,000	25,000
Section 17	5,000	25,000
Section 17.2		25,000
Subsection 17.3(1)	5,000
Subsection 17.4(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.5(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.5(2)		25,000
Subsection 17.5(3)		25,000
Subsection 17.6(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.6(2)		25,000
Section 17.7		25,000
Section 17.9	5,000
Subsection 17.13(1)	5,000
Subsection 17.13(2)	5,000
Subsection 17.14(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.14(2)		25,000
Section 17.15		25,000
Subsection 17.17(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.17(2)		25,000
Subsection 17.17(3)		25,000
Subsection 17.22(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.24(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.25(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.25(2)		25,000
Subsection 17.31(1)	5,000
Section 17.32	5,000
Section 17.33		25,000
Subsection 17.34(3)		25,000
Subsection 17.34(4)	5,000
Subsection 17.34(5)		25,000
Subsection 17.35(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.35(2)		25,000
Subsection 17.35(3)		25,000
Subsection 17.36(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.36(2)		25,000
Subsection 17.36(3)		25,000
Section 17.37	5,000
Section 17.38		25,000
Subsection 17.39(1)		25,000
Subsection 17.39(2)		25,000
Subsection 17.39(3)		25,000
Section 17.40		25,000
Subsection 18(2)	5,000
Subsection 18(3)	5,000
Section 19	5,000	25,000
Section 20	5,000
Subsection 21(1)	5,000	25,000
Section 22	5,000
Section 23	5,000	25,000
Subsection 24(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 24(2)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 24(3)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 25(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 26(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 27(2)	5,000
Section 28	5,000
Subsection 29(2)	5,000
Subsection 30(1)		25,000
Subsection 30(2)	5,000
Subsection 30(3)	5,000
Subsection 30(4)	5,000
Subsection 31(1)	5,000
Subsection 31(2)	5,000
Subsection 33(1)		25,000
Subsection 33(2)		25,000

GLOBAL AFFAIRS CANADA

Notice of intent to conduct impact assessments, including an initial environmental assessment and gender-based analysis plus, on a Canada–Association of Southeast Asian Nations Free Trade Agreement

On November 24, 2021, the Government notified the House of Commons of its intent to initiate free trade agreement (FTA) negotiations between Canada and the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN). The Government of Canada held broad public consultations from September 1 to October 16, 2018, to solicit the general views of Canadians on a Canada–ASEAN FTA. A summary of the feedback received was published on the Global Affairs website.

The government is furthermore seeking the views of Canadians on the potential impacts and opportunities of a Canada–ASEAN FTA with respect to the environment — including changes in greenhouse gas (GHG) and air pollutant emissions — to inform an initial environmental assessment. The government will also examine gender and other diversity considerations through a gender-based analysis plus (GBA+).

In accordance with the Cabinet Directive on the Environmental Assessment of Policy, Plan and Program Proposals, Global Affairs Canada conducts environmental assessments (EAs) for all trade and investment negotiations using a process that requires interdepartmental coordination and public consultation. The objectives of the EA of a trade agreement are to

• Assess the environmental risks and opportunities of a potential trade agreement in Canada and beyond; and
• Assist Canadian negotiators to take into account environmental considerations during the negotiating process, with a view to mitigate risks and enhance benefits, and mainstream relevant environmental provisions across the agreement.

Canada is also committed to the promotion of inclusivity and gender equality in its FTAs, as underpinned by Canada’s inclusive approach to trade and the Export Diversification Strategy. The government works to ensure that all trade initiatives are informed by a GBA+, which is an analytical process to examine the effects of initiatives on diverse groups of people in Canada, taking into account gender and other identity factors such as age, education, language, religion, culture, ethnicity, geography, income, sexual orientation, ability, etc.

Public consultations are an important part of the process, as they help to inform the initial impact assessments of Canada–ASEAN FTA negotiations, and are used to assist Canadian negotiators in the negotiating process. Once negotiations are concluded and prior to the ratification of the agreement, a final economic impact assessment, final EA and final GBA+ will be undertaken to assess the potential impacts of the negotiated outcome on the environment, labour, gender and inclusivity.

The Government of Canada is seeking the views of Indigenous peoples, industry stakeholders, non-governmental organizations, and all interested Canadian citizens. Interested parties are invited to submit their views by April 26, 2022. Please be advised that any information received as a result of this consultation will be considered as public information, unless explicitly specified otherwise.

To help frame submissions, please consider the following questions:

• Do you see any potential environmental and gender- or inclusivity-related risks associated with a Canada–ASEAN FTA in Canada and beyond?
• Do you see any environmental and gender- or inclusivity-related opportunities that could result from a Canada–ASEAN FTA in Canada and beyond?
• What environmental and gender- or inclusivity-related considerations should Canadian negotiators take into account during the negotiating process, with a view to mitigate risks and enhance benefits?

Submissions should include the following information:

• (1) The contributor’s name and address and, if applicable, the name of the contributor’s organization, institution or business;
• (2) The specific questions being addressed and other related issues of concern; and
• (3) Where possible, precise information on the rationale for the positions taken, including any significant impact it may have on Canada’s domestic or international interests.

Contributions can be sent by email or mail to

Trade Negotiations — Trade Agreements and CUSMA Secretariat (TCT)
Global Affairs Canada
111 Sussex Drive
Ottawa, Ontario
K1N 1J1
Email: consultations@international.gc.ca

INNOVATION, SCIENCE AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT CANADA

RADIOCOMMUNICATION ACT

Notice No. DGSO-001-22 — Consultation on Amendments to Requirements for Spectrum Licensees to Submit Technical Information about Sites

The intent of this notice is to announce a consultation process entitled DGSO-001-22, Consultation on Amendments to Requirements for Spectrum Licensees to Submit Technical Information about Sites. This consultation process will provide updates to Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada’s CPC-2-1-23 — Licensing Procedure for Spectrum Licences for Terrestrial Services, which became effective in October 2015.

Submitting comments

Interested parties should submit their comments no later than April 1, 2022. Respondents are requested to provide their comments in electronic format (Microsoft Word or Adobe PDF) to ic.spectrumoperations-operationsduspectre.ic@canada.ca. Soon after the close of the comment period, all comments will be posted on the ISED Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website. ISED will also provide interested parties with the opportunity to reply to comments from other parties. Reply comments will be accepted no later than 14 days after initial comments are posted.

Written submissions should be addressed to

Senior Director
Spectrum Operations Directorate
Spectrum Management Operations Branch
Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada
235 Queen Street, East Tower, 6th Floor
Ottawa, Ontario
K1A 0H5

All submissions should cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, the publication date, the title and the reference number of this notice (DGSO-001-22).

Obtaining copies

Copies of this notice and of documents referred to herein are available electronically on ISED’s Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website.

Official versions of notices can be viewed on the Canada Gazette website.

March 8, 2022

Marc-André Rochon
Senior Director
Spectrum Management Operations Branch

INNOVATION, SCIENCE AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT CANADA

RADIOCOMMUNICATION ACT

Notice No. SMSE-004-22 — Consultation on the Technical and Policy Framework for Radio Local Area Network Devices in the 5850-5895 MHz Frequency Band and for Intelligent Transportation Systems in the 5895-5925 MHz Frequency Band

The intent of this notice is to announce Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada’s (ISED) initiation of a public consultation on a technical and policy framework for operations in the 5850-5925 MHz range through the release of the document entitled Consultation on the Technical and Policy Framework for Radio Local Area Network Devices in the 5850-5895 MHz Frequency Band and for Intelligent Transportation Systems in the 5895-5925 MHz Frequency Band.

General information

Through the release of its consultation paper, ISED is initiating a consultation on a technical and policy framework for Radio Local Area Network (RLAN) devices in the 5850-5895 MHz frequency band and for Intelligent Transportation Systems (ITS) in the 5895-5925 MHz frequency band. Comments are sought on general policy considerations related to the introduction of RLAN devices, the technology to be employed by ITS applications, and a licensing regime for ITS devices.

Submitting comments

To ensure consideration, parties should submit their comments no later than April 29, 2022. Respondents are asked to provide their comments in electronic format (Microsoft Word or Adobe PDF) by email to the following address: spectrumengineering-genieduspectre@ised-isde.gc.ca. Respondents are asked to specify question numbers for ease of referencing. Soon after the close of the comment period, all comments will be posted on the ISED Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website. ISED will review and consider all comments in order to arrive at its decisions regarding the above-mentioned consultation.

ISED will also provide interested parties with the opportunity to reply to comments from other parties. Reply comments will be accepted until June 3, 2022.

All submissions should cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, the publication date, the title and the notice reference number (SMSE-004-22).

Obtaining copies

Copies of this notice and of documents referred to herein are available electronically on the ISED Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website.

Official versions of notices can be viewed on the Canada Gazette website.

February 24, 2022

Martin Proulx
Director General
Engineering, Planning and Standards Branch

PRIVY COUNCIL OFFICE

Appointment opportunities

We know that our country is stronger — and our government more effective — when decision-makers reflect Canada’s diversity. The Government of Canada has implemented an appointment process that is transparent and merit-based, strives for gender parity, and ensures that Indigenous peoples and minority groups are properly represented in positions of leadership. We continue to search for Canadians who reflect the values that we all embrace: inclusion, honesty, fiscal prudence, and generosity of spirit. Together, we will build a government as diverse as Canada.

We are equally committed to providing a healthy workplace that supports one’s dignity, self-esteem and the ability to work to one’s full potential. With this in mind, all appointees will be expected to take steps to promote and maintain a healthy, respectful and harassment-free work environment.

The Government of Canada is currently seeking applications from diverse and talented Canadians from across the country who are interested in the following positions.

Current opportunities

The following opportunities for appointments to Governor in Council positions are currently open for applications. Every opportunity is open for a minimum of two weeks from the date of posting on the Governor in Council appointments website.

Governor in Council appointment opportunities

Poste	Organisation	Date de clôture
Director	Bank of Canada
Director	Canada Development Investment Corporation
Director	Canada Foundation for Sustainable Development Technology
Chairperson	Canada Lands Company Limited
Chief Executive Officer	Canadian Centre on Substance Abuse
Member	Canadian Cultural Property Export Review Board
Chief Executive Officer	Canadian Dairy Commission
Chairperson	Canadian High Arctic Research Station
Member	Canadian High Arctic Research Station
Vice-Chairperson	Canadian High Arctic Research Station
Deputy Chief Commissioner	Canadian Human Rights Commission
Member	Canadian Human Rights Commission
Trustee	Canadian Museum for Human Rights
Director	Canadian Museum of History
Director	Canadian Museum of Nature
Member	Canadian Museum of Nature
Chairperson	International Development Research Centre
Chairperson	Invest in Canada Hub
Chief Executive Officer	Invest in Canada Hub
Director	Invest in Canada Hub
Commissioner	Law Commission of Canada
President	Law Commission of Canada
Trustee	National Museum of Science and Technology
Federal Ombudsman for Victims of Crime	Office of the Federal Ombudsman for Victims of Crime
Privacy Commissioner	Office of the Privacy Commissioner of Canada
Chairperson	Patented Medicine Prices Review Board
Director (Federal)	Québec Port Authority
Director	Royal Canadian Mint	18 mars 2022
Director	Windsor-Detroit Bridge Authority

TREASURY BOARD SECRETARIAT

PUBLIC SERVICE SUPERANNUATION REGULATIONS
CANADIAN FORCES SUPERANNUATION REGULATIONS
ROYAL CANADIAN MOUNTED POLICE SUPERANNUATION REGULATIONS

Quarterly rates

In accordance with subsection 46(3) of the Public Service Superannuation Regulations, subsection 36(3) of the Canadian Forces Superannuation Regulations and subsection 30(3) of the Royal Canadian Mounted Police Superannuation Regulations, the quarterly rates used for calculating interest for the purpose of subsection (1) of each of the corresponding sections are as follows:

• As of:
  • March 31, 2021 0.8371%
  • June 30, 2021 0.8296%
  • September 30, 2021 0.8243%
  • December 31, 2021 0.8194%

Mona Fortier
President