Canada Gazette, Part I, Volume 155, Number 28: GOVERNMENT NOTICES
July 10, 2021
DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999
Ministerial Condition No. 20712
Ministerial condition
(Paragraph 84(1)(a) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
Whereas the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health (the ministers) have assessed information pertaining to the substance phosphonic acid, P,P′-(1-hydroxydodecylidene)bis-, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 16610-63-2;
And whereas the ministers suspect that the substance is toxic or capable of becoming toxic within the meaning of section 64 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (the Act),
The Minister of the Environment, pursuant to paragraph 84(1)(a) of the Act, hereby permits the manufacture or import of the substance subject to the conditions of the following annex.
Marc D'Iorio
Assistant Deputy Minister
Science and Technology Branch
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment
ANNEX
Conditions
(Paragraph 84(1)(a) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
1. The following definitions apply in these ministerial conditions:
- “cosmetic”
- means a cosmetic as defined in section 2 of the Food and Drugs Act.
- “leave-on hairstyling product”
- means any substance or mixture of substances manufactured, sold or represented for use in improving or altering the complexion of hair, that is not meant to be rinsed or washed off immediately after its application, and includes hairspray, mousse, gel, wax, and putty.
- “leave-on makeup product”
- means any substance or mixture of substances manufactured, sold or represented for use in improving or altering the complexion of skin by adding colour that is applied in a small amount to the face, that is not meant to be rinsed or washed off immediately after its application, and includes blush, lipstick, mascara, eyeliner, eyeshadow, and foundation.
- “notifier”
- means the person who has, on March 4, 2021, provided to the Minister of the Environment the prescribed information concerning the substance, in accordance with subsection 81(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999.
- “rinse-off cosmetic”
- means a cosmetic intended to be rinsed or washed off immediately after its application, and includes body soap, shampoo, conditioner, permanent hair dye, facial cleanser, face exfoliate, shaving cream, and hair removal cream. The following are excluded from the present definition: deodorant, antiperspirant, lotion, sunscreen, after shave, perfume, moisturizer, makeup remover, hand sanitizer, skin cream, oil, serum, baby powder, baby oil, baby salve, diaper cream, and oral hygiene product.
- “substance”
- means phosphonic acid, P,P′-(1-hydroxydodecylidene)bis-, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 16610-63-2.
2. The notifier may manufacture or import the substance subject to the present ministerial conditions.
Restrictions
3. The notifier shall use the substance only to manufacture the following cosmetics, at a concentration of less than or equal to 0.4% by weight:
- (a) leave-on hairstyling products;
- (b) leave-on makeup products; and
- (c) rinse-off cosmetics.
4. The notifier shall import the substance only if it is contained in the following cosmetics, at a concentration of less than or equal to 0.4% by weight:
- (a) leave-on hairstyling products;
- (b) leave-on makeup products; and
- (c) rinse-off cosmetics.
Other requirements
5. (1) The notifier shall, prior to transferring the physical possession or control of the substance to any person
- (a) inform the person, in writing, of the terms of the present ministerial conditions; and
- (b) obtain, prior to the first transfer of the substance, written confirmation from this person that they were informed of the terms of the present ministerial conditions and agree to comply with sections 3 and 4 of these ministerial conditions.
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply when the substance is contained in a cosmetic referred to in sections 3 and 4.
6. The person who signs the written confirmation referred to in paragraph 5(1)(b) must comply with sections 3 and 4 as if these sections referred to this person.
Record-keeping requirements
7. (1) The notifier shall maintain electronic or paper records, with any documentation supporting the validity of the information contained in these records, indicating
- (a) the specific use of the substance;
- (b) the quantity of the substance that the notifier manufactures, imports, purchases, distributes, sells and uses;
- (c) the concentration of the substance by weight in cosmetics that the notifier manufactures, imports, purchases, distributes, sells and uses;
- (d) the name and address of each person to whom the notifier transfers the physical possession or control of the substance; and
- (e) the written confirmation referred to in paragraph 5(1)(b).
(2) The notifier shall maintain the electronic or paper records mentioned in subsection (1) at their principal place of business in Canada, or at the principal place of business in Canada of their representative, for a period of at least five years after they are made.
Coming into force
8. The present ministerial conditions come into force on June 28, 2021.
DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999
Significant New Activity Notice No. 11449a (variation to Significant New Activity Notice No. 11449)
Significant New Activity Notice
(Section 85 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
Whereas the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health have assessed information in their possession in respect of the substance oxirane, 2,2′-[(1-methylethylidene)bis[4,1-phenyleneoxy[1-(butoxymethyl)-2,1-ethanediyl]oxymethylene]]bis-, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 71033-08-4, under section 83 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999;
Whereas the Minister of the Environment published on December 6, 2008, Significant New Activity Notice No. 11449 in Part I of the Canada Gazette, Vol. 142, No. 49;
Whereas the substance is not specified on the Domestic Substance List;
And whereas the ministers suspect that a significant new activity in relation to the substance may result in the substance becoming toxic within the meaning of section 64 of the Act,
Therefore, the Minister of the Environment hereby varies Significant New Activity Notice No. 11449, pursuant to subsection 85(2) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, in accordance with the Annex.
The Honourable Jonathan Wilkinson
Minister of the Environment
ANNEX
1. The Annex to Significant New Activity Notice No. 11449 is replaced by the following:
ANNEX
Information Requirements
(Section 85 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
1. The following definition applies in this notice:
- “consumer product”
- means a product to which Canada Consumer Product Safety Act applies; and
- “substance”
- means oxirane, 2,2′-[(1-methylethylidene)bis[4,1-phenyleneoxy[1-(butoxymethyl)-2,1-ethanediyl]oxymethylene]]bis-, Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number 71033-08-4.
2. In relation to the substance, a significant new activity is
- (a) the use of the substance in the manufacture of a consumer product, when the substance is present in a concentration that is equal to or greater than 0.1% by weight in the consumer product;
- (b) the distribution for sale of the substance in a quantity greater than 10 kilograms in a calendar year when the substance is present in a consumer product in a concentration that is equal to or greater than 0.1% by weight; and
- (c) any use of the substance, including the one described in paragraph (a), when the substance is released to water in a quantity exceeding 1 kilogram per day per site.
3. Despite paragraph 2(a), a use of the substance is not a significant new activity when the substance is released to water in a quantity of 1 kilogram or less per day, per site and if the substance is used
- (a) as a research and development substance or as a site-limited intermediate substance as these terms are defined in subsection 1(1) of the New Substances Notification Regulations (Chemicals and Polymers); or
- (b) in the manufacture of a consumer product as described in that paragraph, that is for export only.
4. For each proposed significant new activity, the following information must be provided to the Minister of the Environment at least 90 days before the day on which the activity begins:
- (a) a description of the significant new activity in relation to the substance;
- (b) the anticipated annual quantity of the substance to be used in relation to the significant new activity;
- (c) the information specified in paragraphs 7(c) and (d) of Schedule 4 to the New Substances Notification Regulations (Chemicals and Polymers);
- (d) the information specified in items 8 and 10 of Schedule 5 to the Regulations;
- (e) a summary of all other information or test data in respect of the substance that is in the possession of the person who is proposing the significant new activity, or to which they have access, and that is relevant to identifying the hazards of the substance to the environment and human health and the degree of environmental and public exposure to the substance;
- (f) the name of every government department or agency, either outside or within Canada, to which the person proposing the significant new activity has provided information regarding the use of the substance and, if known, the department's or agency's file number and, if any, the outcome of the department's or agency's assessment and the risk management actions in relation to the substance imposed by the department or agency;
- (g) the name, civic and postal addresses, telephone number and, if any, the fax number and email address of the person who is proposing the significant new activity and, if they are not resident in Canada, of the person resident in Canada who is authorized to act on their behalf;
- (h) a certification that the information is accurate and complete, dated and signed by the person who is proposing the significant new activity if they are resident in Canada or, if not, by the person resident in Canada who is authorized to act on their behalf;
- (i) in the case of a significant new activity described in paragraphs 2(a) and 2(b), the test data and the test report from the following:
- (i) a toxicity test in respect to the substance that is conducted in accordance with the methodology described in the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) Guidelines for the Testing of Chemicals, Test No. 429, entitled Skin Sensitisation: Local Lymph Node Assay, that is current at the time the test is conducted, and
- (ii) a toxicity test in respect to the substance that is conducted in accordance with the methodology described in the OECD Guidelines for the Testing of Chemicals, Test No. 455, entitled Performance-Based Test Guideline for Stably Transfected Transactivation In Vitro Assays to Detect Estrogen Receptor Agonists and Antagonists, that is current at the time the test is conducted; and
- (j) in the case of a significant new activity described in paragraph 2(c), the test data and the test report of an in vivo fish study in respect to the substance that is conducted in accordance with the methodology described in the OECD Guidelines for the Testing of Chemicals, Test No. 229, entitled Fish Short Term Reproduction Assay, with evaluation of secondary sex characteristics and gonadal histopathology, that is current at the time the test is conducted.
5. The tests referred to in paragraphs 4(i) and 4(j) must be conducted in accordance with the OECD Principles of Good Laboratory Practice set out in Annex II of the Decision of the Council concerning the Mutual Acceptance of Data in the Assessment of Chemicals, adopted on May 12, 1981, that are current at the time the tests are conducted.
6. The information in section 4 will be assessed within 90 days after the day on which it is received by the Minister of the Environment.
EXPLANATORY NOTE
(This explanatory note is not part of the Significant New Activity Notice.)
Description
This Significant New Activity (SNAc) Notice is a legal instrument adopted by the Minister of the Environment pursuant to section 85 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (the Act) to apply the SNAc provisions of that Act to the substance oxirane, 2,2′-[(1-methylethylidene)bis[4,1-phenyleneoxy[1-(butoxymethyl)-2,1-ethanediyl]oxymethylene]]bis-, Chemical Abstracts Service (CAS) Registry Number 71033-08-4. The Notice is now in force and it is a binding law. It is therefore mandatory for a person who intends to use the substance for a significant new activity as defined in the Notice to meet all the applicable requirements set out in the Notice.
A SNAc Notice does not constitute an endorsement from the Minister of the Environment, the Department of the Environment or the Government of Canada of the substance to which it relates, nor does it constitute an exemption from any other laws or regulations that are in force in Canada and that may apply to this substance or activities involving the substance.
Applicability of the Significant New Activity Notice
The Notice requires that any person (individual or corporation) engaging in a significant new activity in relation to the substance oxirane, 2,2′-[(1-methylethylidene)bis[4,1-phenyleneoxy[1-(butoxymethyl)-2,1-ethanediyl]oxymethylene]]bis-, CAS Registry Number 71033-08-4, submit a Significant New Activity Notification (SNAN) containing all of the information prescribed in the Notice at least 90 days prior to using the substance for the significant new activity.
In order to address the environmental and human toxicity concerns, the Notice requires notification in relation to the use of the substance in the manufacture of a consumer product, when the concentration of the substance is equal to or greater than 0.1% by weight. This notice also requires notification in relation to the distribution for sale of consumer products containing the substance. For example, notification is required if a person plans to manufacture or distribute a consumer product in which the substance is present in a concentration equal to or greater than 0.1% by weight. Notification is also required in relation to any use of the substance when the substance is released to water in a quantity equal to or greater than 1 kilogram per day per site.
A SNAN is required 90 days before the use of the substance in a significant new activity.
Activities not subject to the Notice
The following activities are not significant new activities:
Uses of the substance that are regulated under the acts of Parliament listed in Schedule 2 of the Act, including the Pest Control Products Act, the Fertilizers Act and the Feeds Act are excluded from the Notice. The Notice also does not apply to transient reaction intermediates, impurities, contaminants, partially unreacted materials, or in some circumstances to items such as, but not limited to, wastes, mixtures, or manufactured items. However, it should be noted that individual components of a mixture may be subject to notification under the provisions of the Act. See subsection 81(6) and section 3 of the Act, and section 3 of the Guidelines for the Notification and Testing of New Substances: Chemicals and Polymers for additional information.
Activities involving the use of the substance as a research and development substance or a site-limited intermediate or the use of the substance to manufacture consumer products to be exported are excluded from the Notice, if the substance is released into water in a quantity of 1 kilogram or less per day per site. The terms “research and development substance” and “site-limited intermediate substance” are defined in subsection 1(1) of the New Substances Notification Regulations (Chemicals and Polymers).
Information to be submitted
The Notice sets out the information that must be provided to the Minister 90 days before the day on which the substance oxirane, 2,2′-[(1-methylethylidene)bis[4,1-phenyleneoxy[1-(butoxymethyl)-2,1-ethanediyl]oxymethylene]]bis-, CAS Registry Number 71033-08-4 is used for a significant new activity. The Department of the Environment and the Department of Health will use the information submitted in the SNAN to conduct risk assessments within 90 days after the complete information is received.
The initial assessment of the substance identified potential concerns associated with use of the substance in consumer products and releases of the substance into water in a quantity equal to or greater than 1 kilogram per day per site. This mixed aryl-alkyl ether, based on bisphenol A with two pendant epoxy groups per molecule chemical substance can potentially cause endocrine disruption and skin sensitization. The SNAc Notice is issued to gather toxicity information to ensure that the substance will undergo further assessment before significant new activities are undertaken.
The information requirements in the Notice relate to general information in respect of the substance, details surrounding its use, exposure information, and toxicity to human health and the environment. Some of the information requirements reference the New Substances Notification Regulations (Chemicals and Polymers).
Additional guidance on preparing a SNAN can be found in section 1.3 of the Guidelines for the Notification and Testing of New Substances: Chemicals and Polymers.
Compliance
When assessing whether or not a substance is subject to SNAc provisions, a person is expected to make use of information in their possession or to which they may reasonably have access. This means information in any of the notifier's offices worldwide or other locations where the notifier can reasonably have access to the information. For example, manufacturers are expected to have access to their formulations, while importers or users of a substance, mixture, or product are expected to have access to import records, usage information and the relevant Safety Data Sheets (SDSs), formerly “Material Safety Data Sheets” (MSDSs). More details are contained in the Regulations Amending the New Substances Notification Regulations (Chemicals and Polymers) and the Export of Substances on the Export Control List Regulations for reference to this amendment.
Although an SDS is an important source of information on the composition of a product, it should be noted that the goal of the SDS is to protect the health of workers in the workplace from specific hazards of chemical products. Therefore, an SDS may not list all product ingredients that may be subject to a SNAc notice due to human health or the environmental concerns. Any person requiring more detailed information on product composition is encouraged to contact their supplier.
If any information becomes available that reasonably supports the conclusion that the substance is toxic or capable of becoming toxic, the person who obtains the information and is involved in activities with the substance is obligated, under section 70 of the Act, to provide that information to the Minister without delay.
A company can submit a SNAN on behalf of its clients. For example, in cases where a person takes possession or control of a substance from another person, they may not be required to submit a SNAN, under certain conditions, if their activities were covered by an original SNAN submitted by the person from whom they obtained the substance. The Substances Management Advisory Note “Clarification in relation to the submission of Significant New Activity Notifications in application of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999” provides more detail on this subject.
Under section 86 of the Act, any person who transfers the physical possession or control of a substance subject to a SNAc notice must notify all persons to whom the physical possession or control is transferred of the obligation to comply with the notice, including the obligation to notify the Minister of any SNAc and to provide all the required information outlined above.
A pre-notification consultation (PNC) is recommended for notifiers who wish to consult with the program during the planning or preparation of their SNAN to discuss any questions or concerns they have about the prescribed information and test plans.
For further information, you may contact the Substances Management Information Line (eccc.substances.eccc@canada.ca [email], 1‑800‑567‑1999 [toll-free in Canada], and 819‑938‑3232 [outside of Canada]).
The Act is enforced in accordance with the publicly available Compliance and Enforcement Policy for the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999. In instances of non-compliance, consideration is given to factors such as the nature of the alleged violation, potential harm, intent, and history of compliance.
DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH
CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999
Publication of results of investigations and recommendations for a substance — corn, steep liquor, CAS RN footnote 1 66071-94-1 — specified on the Domestic Substances List (paragraphs 68(b) and (c) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)
Whereas a summary of the screening assessment conducted on corn, steep liquor pursuant to paragraphs 68(b) and (c) of the Act is annexed hereby;
And whereas it is concluded that the substance does not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act,
Notice therefore is hereby given that the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health (the ministers) propose to take no further action on this substance at this time.
Jonathan Wilkinson
Minister of the Environment
Patty Hajdu
Minister of Health
ANNEX
Summary of the screening assessment of corn, steep liquor
Pursuant to section 68 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (CEPA), the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health have conducted a screening assessment of corn, steep liquor, hereinafter referred to as CSL. The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS RN) for CSL is 66071-94-1.
CSL is a chemical substance of unknown or variable composition, complex reaction product or biological materials (UVCB). CSL does not occur naturally in the environment; it is a by-product of the corn wet milling process, consisting of the water soluble extracts of corn soaked (steeped) in water. In Canada, CSL is primarily used as a corrosion inhibitor and anti-scaling agent in antifreeze and de-icing products, as a formulant in registered pest control products, and as an animal feed ingredient. It is also used as an attractant in carp bait. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey for the 2011 reporting year, CSL was manufactured in Canada in quantities over 10 000 000 kg and was imported into Canada in quantities between 100 000 kg and 1 000 000 kg.
The ecological risk of CSL was characterized using the ecological risk classification of organic substances (ERC), which is a risk-based approach that employs multiple metrics for both hazard and exposure, with weighted consideration of multiple lines of evidence for determining risk classification. Hazard profiles are based principally on metrics regarding mode of toxic action, chemical reactivity, food web–derived internal toxicity thresholds, bioavailability, and chemical and biological activity. Metrics considered in the exposure profiles include potential emission rate, overall persistence and long-range transport potential. A risk matrix is used to assign a low, moderate or high level of potential concern for substances on the basis of their hazard and exposure profiles. Based on the outcome of the ERC analysis, CSL is considered unlikely to be causing ecological harm.
Considering all available lines of evidence presented in this screening assessment, there is a low risk of harm to the environment from CSL. It is concluded that CSL does not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(a) or (b) of CEPA, as it is not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity or that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends.
With respect to human health, the United States Environmental Protection Agency found CSL to be of low concern for hazard to human health. Furthermore, the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD) determined that lactic acid, which is the major individual component of CSL on a dry weight basis, does not present a hazard to human health based on its low hazard profile. The Joint Food and Agriculture Organization/World Health Organization (FAO/WHO) Expert Committee on Food Additives (JECFA) concluded that no limit needs to be set for the acceptable daily intake for lactic acid from food and that there is no concern for human health at current levels of intake when used as a food flavouring agent, since lactic acid is endogenous in humans. In consideration of the available information from international assessments, CSL is considered to be a substance of low hazard potential and, therefore the risk to human health is considered to be low.
On the basis of the information presented in this screening assessment, it is concluded that CSL does not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA, as it is not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.
Overall conclusion
It is therefore concluded that CSL does not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA.
The screening assessment for this substance is available on the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website.
DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT
AERONAUTICS ACT
Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 32
Whereas the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 32 is required to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to aviation safety or the safety of the public;
Whereas the provisions of the annexed Order may be contained in a regulation made pursuant to sections 4.71footnote a and 4.9footnote b, paragraphs 7.6(1)(a)footnote c and (b)footnote d and section 7.7footnote e of the Aeronautics Actfootnote f;
And whereas, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1.2)footnote g of that Act, the Minister of Transport has consulted with the persons and organizations that that Minister considers appropriate in the circumstances before making the annexed Order;
Therefore, the Minister of Transport, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1)footnote g of the Aeronautics Actfootnote f, makes the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 32.
Ottawa, June 22, 2021
Omar Alghabra
Minister of Transport
Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 32
Interpretation
Definitions
1 (1) The following definitions apply in this Interim Order.
- aerodrome security personnel
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (personnel de sûreté de l'aérodrome)
- air carrier
- means any person who operates a commercial air service under Subpart 1, 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII of the Regulations. (transporteur aérien)
- checked baggage
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (bagages enregistrés)
- COVID-19
- means the coronavirus disease 2019. (COVID-19)
- COVID-19 molecular test
- means a COVID-19 screening or diagnostic test carried out by an accredited laboratory, including a test performed using the method of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or reverse transcription loop-mediated isothermal amplification (RT-LAMP). (essai moléculaire relatif à la COVID-19)
- document of entitlement
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (document d'autorisation)
- elevated temperature
- means a temperature within the range set out in the standards. (température élevée)
- foreign national
- means a person who is not a Canadian citizen or a permanent resident and includes a stateless person. (étranger)
- non-passenger screening checkpoint
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des non-passagers)
- passenger screening checkpoint
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des passagers)
- peace officer
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (agent de la paix)
- Regulations
- means the Canadian Aviation Regulations. (Règlement)
- restricted area
- has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (zone réglementée)
- screening officer
- has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act. (agent de contrôle)
- standards
- means the document entitled the Transport Canada Temperature Screening Standards, published by the Minister, as amended from time to time. (normes)
Interpretation
(2) Unless the context requires otherwise, all other words and expressions used in this Interim Order have the same meaning as in the Regulations.
Conflict
(3) In the event of a conflict between this Interim Order and the Regulations or the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012, the Interim Order prevails.
Definition of face mask
(4) For the purposes of this Interim Order, a face mask means any mask, including a non-medical mask that meets all of the following requirements:
- (a) it is made of multiple layers of tightly woven materials such as cotton or linen;
- (b) it completely covers a person's nose, mouth and chin without gaping;
- (c) it can be secured to a person's head with ties or ear loops.
Face masks — lip reading
(5) Despite paragraph (4)(a), the portion of a face mask in front of a wearer's lips may be made of transparent material that permits lip reading if
- (a) the rest of the face mask is made of multiple layers of tightly woven materials such as cotton or linen; and
- (b) there is a tight seal between the transparent material and the rest of the face mask.
Notification
Federal, provincial and territorial measures
2 (1) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be subject to measures to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.
Suitable quarantine plan and prepaid accommodation
(2) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person before the person boards the aircraft for the flight that they may be required, under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act, to provide, before boarding the aircraft, to the Minister of Health by the electronic means specified by that Minister a suitable quarantine plan and evidence of prepaid accommodation arrangements that enables them to remain in quarantine at a government-authorized accommodation for a three-day period that begins on the day on which they enter Canada or, if the person is not required under that order to provide the plan and the evidence, their contact information. The private operator or air carrier must also notify every person that they may be liable to a fine if this requirement applies to them and they fail to comply with it.
False declarations
(3) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide a confirmation referred to in subsection 3(1) that they know to be false or misleading.
Confirmation
Federal, provincial and territorial measures
3 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country, every person must confirm to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may be subject to a measure to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.
False declaration
(2) A person must not provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) that they know to be false or misleading.
Exception
(3) A competent adult may provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult.
Prohibition
4 A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must not permit a person to board the aircraft for the flight if the person is a competent adult and does not provide a confirmation that they are required to provide under subsection 3(1).
Foreign Nationals
Prohibition
5 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a foreign national to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates to Canada departing from any other country.
Exception
6 Section 5 does not apply to a foreign national who is permitted to enter Canada under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act.
Health Check
Non-application
7 Sections 8 to 10 do not apply to either of the following persons:
- (a) a crew member;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.
Health check
8 (1) A private operator or air carrier must conduct a health check of every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates by asking questions to verify whether they exhibit any of the following symptoms:
- (a) a fever;
- (b) a cough;
- (c) breathing difficulties.
Notification
(2) A private operator or air carrier must notify every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may not be permitted to board the aircraft if
- (a) they exhibit a fever and a cough or a fever and breathing difficulties, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their symptoms are not related to COVID-19;
- (b) they have, or suspect that they have, COVID-19;
- (c) they have been denied permission to board an aircraft in the previous 14 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19; or
- (d) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, they are the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.
Confirmation
(3) Every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates must confirm to the private operator or air carrier that none of the following situations apply to them:
- (a) the person has, or suspects that they have, COVID-19;
- (b) the person has been denied permission to board an aircraft in the previous 14 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19;
- (c) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, the person is the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.
False declaration — obligation of private operator or air carrier
(4) The private operator or air carrier must advise every person that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide answers, with respect to the health check or a confirmation, that they know to be false or misleading.
False declaration — obligations of person
(5) A person who, under subsections (1) and (3), is subjected to a health check and is required to provide a confirmation must
- (a) answer all questions; and
- (b) not provide answers or a confirmation that they know to be false or misleading.
Exception
(6) A competent adult may answer all questions and provide a confirmation on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult and who, under subsections (1) and (3), is subjected to a health check and is required to give a confirmation.
Observations — private operator or air carrier
(7) During the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates, the private operator or air carrier must observe whether any person boarding the aircraft is exhibiting any symptoms referred to in subsection (1).
Prohibition
9 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if
- (a) the person's answers to the health check questions indicate that they exhibit
- (i) a fever and cough, or
- (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
- (b) the private operator or air carrier observes that, as the person is boarding, they exhibit
- (i) a fever and cough, or
- (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
- (c) the person's confirmation under subsection 8(3) indicates that one of the situations described in paragraphs 8(3)(a), (b) or (c) applies to that person; or
- (d) the person is a competent adult and refuses to answer any of the questions asked of them under subsection 8(1) or to give the confirmation under subsection 8(3).
Period of 14 days
10 A person who is not permitted to board an aircraft under section 9 is not permitted to board another aircraft for a period of 14 days after the refusal, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.
COVID-19 Molecular Test — Flights to Canada
Application
10.1 (1) Sections 10.2 to 10.7 apply to a private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country and to every person boarding an aircraft for such a flight.
Non-application
(2) Sections 10.2 to 10.7 do not apply to persons who are not required under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act to provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.
Notification
10.2 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may not be permitted to board the aircraft if they are unable to provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.
Evidence — result of test
10.3 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight, every person must provide to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight evidence that they received either
- (a) a negative result for a COVID-19 molecular test that was performed on a specimen collected no more than 72 hours before the aircraft's initial scheduled departure time; or
- (b) a positive result for such a test that was performed on a specimen collected at least 14 days and no more than 90 days before the aircraft's initial scheduled departure time.
Evidence — location of test
(2) For the purposes of subsection (1), the COVID-19 molecular test must have been performed in a country or territory that is not listed in Schedule 1.
Evidence — elements
10.4 Evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test must include
- (a) the person's name and date of birth;
- (b) the name and civic address of the laboratory that administered the test;
- (c) the date the specimen was collected and the test method used; and
- (d) the test result.
False or misleading evidence
10.5 A person must not provide evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test that they know to be false or misleading.
Notice to Minister
10.6 A private operator or air carrier that has reason to believe that a person has provided evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test that is likely to be false or misleading must notify the Minister as soon as feasible of the person's name and contact information and the date and number of the person's flight.
Prohibition
10.7 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if the person does not provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test in accordance with the requirements set out in section 10.3.
Temperature Screening — Flights to Canada
Application
11 (1) Sections 12 to 19 apply to an air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country and to every person boarding an aircraft for such a flight.
Non-application
(2) Sections 12 to 19 do not apply to either of the following persons:
- (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Non-application — crew member
(3) Sections 12 to 15 do not apply to a crew member who underwent a temperature screening under section 22 for the duration of the shift during which the temperature screening was conducted.
Requirement
12 (1) Subject to subsection 19(2), an air carrier must conduct a temperature screening of every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates. The screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.
Second screening
(2) The air carrier must conduct a second temperature screening if the first temperature screening indicates that the person has an elevated temperature. The second temperature screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.
Notification
13 (1) An air carrier must notify every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 12(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Confirmation
(2) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight, every person must confirm to the air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 12(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — elevated temperature
14 (1) If the temperature screening conducted under subsection 12(2) indicates that the person has an elevated temperature, the air carrier must
- (a) not permit the person to board the aircraft; and
- (b) notify the person that they are not permitted to board another aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days after the refusal, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — refusal
(2) If a person refuses to be subjected to a temperature screening, the air carrier must not permit the person to board the aircraft.
Period of 14 days
15 A person who is not permitted to board an aircraft under section 14 is not permitted to board another aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days after the refusal, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Requirement — equipment
16 An air carrier must calibrate and maintain the equipment that it uses to conduct temperature screenings under subsection 12(2) to ensure that the equipment is in proper operating condition.
Requirement — training
17 An air carrier must ensure that the person using the equipment to conduct temperature screenings under subsection 12(2) has been trained to operate that equipment and interpret the data that it produces.
Record keeping — equipment
18 (1) An air carrier must keep a record of the following information in respect of each flight it operates:
- (a) the number of persons who were not permitted to board the aircraft under paragraph 14(1)(a);
- (b) the date and flight number;
- (c) the make and model of the equipment that the air carrier used to conduct the temperature screenings under subsection 12(2);
- (d) the date and time that that equipment was last calibrated and last maintained, as well as the name of the person who performed the calibration or maintenance; and
- (e) the results of the last calibration and the activities performed during the last maintenance of that equipment, including any corrective measures taken.
Record keeping — training
(2) An air carrier must keep a record of the name of every person who has received training under section 17, as well as the contents of the training.
Retention period
(3) The air carrier must
- (a) retain the records referred to in subsection (1) for a period of at least 90 days after the day of the flight; and
- (b) retain the records referred to in subsection (2) for a period of at least 90 days after the day on which the person received the training.
Ministerial request
(4) The air carrier must make the records referred to in subsections (1) and (2) available to the Minister on request.
Definition of authorized person
19 (1) For the purposes of this section, authorized person means a person authorized by a competent authority to conduct temperature screenings at an aerodrome located outside of Canada.
Exception
(2) An air carrier may rely on an authorized person to conduct the temperature screening under subsection 12(1), in which case subsection 12(2) and sections 13, 14 and 16 to 18 do not apply to that air carrier.
Notification
(3) The air carrier must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they are not permitted to board an aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Period of 14 days
(4) If the temperature screening indicates that a person has an elevated temperature, that person is not permitted to board an aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days after the temperature screening, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Equipment
(5) The air carrier must ensure that the equipment used to conduct those temperature screenings is calibrated and maintained so that the equipment is in proper operating condition.
Temperature Screening — Aerodromes in Canada
Definition of screening authority
20 (1) For the purposes of this section and sections 21 to 31, screening authority has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012.
Application
(2) Sections 21 to 31 apply to all of the following persons:
- (a) a person entering a restricted area within an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2 from a non-restricted area;
- (b) a person undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2;
- (c) the operator of an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2;
- (d) a screening authority at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2;
- (e) an air carrier operating a flight departing from an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 2.
Non-application
(3) Sections 21 to 31 do not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
- (b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19;
- (c) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
- (d) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency.
Requirement
21 A person entering a restricted area within an air terminal building from a non-restricted area within the air terminal building must do so at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint.
Requirement — temperature screening
22 (1) Subject to subsection (3), a screening authority must conduct a temperature screening of every person who presents themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint within an air terminal building for the purpose of entering a restricted area from a non-restricted area and of every person undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building. The screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.
Second screening
(2) Following a rest period of 10 minutes, the screening authority must conduct a second temperature screening if the first temperature screening indicates that the person has an elevated temperature. The second temperature screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.
Exception
(3) If the temperature screening of a person, other than a passenger, who presents themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint within an air terminal building for the purpose of entering a restricted area from a non-restricted area, or of a person who is undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building, indicates that the person does not have an elevated temperature, the screening authority is not required to conduct any further temperature screenings of that person for the duration of the day during which the temperature screening was conducted.
Notification — consequence of elevated temperature
23 (1) An air carrier must notify every person, other than a crew member, who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada and that they must not enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 22(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Confirmation — consequence of elevated temperature
(2) Before passing beyond a passenger screening checkpoint to board an aircraft for a flight, every person other than a crew member must confirm to the air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada and that they must not enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 22(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — elevated temperature
24 (1) If the temperature screening conducted under subsection 22(2) indicates that the person has an elevated temperature, the screening authority must
- (a) deny the person entry to the restricted area; and
- (b) notify the person that they are not permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada or enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — refusal
(2) If a person refuses to be subjected to a temperature screening, the screening authority must deny them entry to the restricted area.
Period of 14 days
25 A person who is denied entry to the restricted area under section 24 is not permitted to enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Denial — person intending to board aircraft
26 (1) If, under section 24, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight, other than a crew member, the screening authority must, for the purpose of paragraph 26(4)(a), notify the air carrier operating the flight that that person has been denied entry to the restricted area and provide the person's name and flight number to the air carrier.
Denial — person not intending to board aircraft
(2) If, under section 24, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a person who does not intend to board an aircraft for a flight, the screening authority must, for the purpose of subsection 26(5), provide the following information to the operator of the aerodrome:
- (a) the person's name as it appears on their document of entitlement;
- (b) the number or identifier of the person's document of entitlement; and
- (c) the reason why the person was denied entry to the restricted area.
Denial — crew member
(3) If, under section 24, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a crew member, the screening authority must provide the information referred to in subsection (2) to the air carrier for the purpose of allowing the air carrier to assign a replacement crew member, if necessary.
Denial — air carrier requirements
(4) An air carrier that has been notified under subsection (1) must
- (a) ensure that the person is directed to a location where they can retrieve their checked baggage, if applicable; and
- (b) if the person is escorted to a location where they can retrieve their checked baggage, ensure that the escort wears a face mask and maintains a distance of at least two metres between themselves and the person.
Denial — aerodrome operator requirement
(5) The operator of an aerodrome that has been notified under subsection (2) must suspend the person's restricted area entry privileges for a period of 14 days after the person was denied entry to the restricted area, unless the person provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Prohibition — restricted area
(6) If, under section 24, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a crew member or to a person who does not intend to board an aircraft for a flight, the crew member or that person must not present themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint at any aerodrome for the purpose of entering a restricted area for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.
Requirement — equipment
27 A screening authority must ensure that the equipment that it uses to conduct temperature screenings under section 22 is calibrated and maintained so that the equipment is in proper operating condition.
Requirement — training
28 A screening authority must ensure that the person using the equipment to conduct temperature screenings under section 22 has been trained to operate that equipment and interpret the data that it produces.
Record keeping — equipment
29 (1) A screening authority must keep a record of the following information with respect to any temperature screening it conducts:
- (a) the number of persons who are denied entry under paragraph 24(1)(a) at a passenger screening checkpoint;
- (b) the number of persons who are denied entry under paragraph 24(1)(a) at a non-passenger screening checkpoint;
- (c) the flight number of any person who is denied entry under paragraph 24(1)(a) at a passenger screening checkpoint and the date on which the person was denied entry;
- (d) the make and model of the equipment that the screening authority uses to conduct the temperature screenings under section 22;
- (e) the date and time when that equipment was calibrated and maintained, as well as the name of the person who performed the calibration or maintenance; and
- (f) the results of the calibration and the activities performed during the maintenance of that equipment, including any corrective measures taken.
Record keeping — training
(2) The screening authority must keep a record of the name of every person who has received training under section 28, as well as the contents of the training.
Retention
(3) The screening authority must
- (a) retain the records referred to in subsection (1) for a period of at least 90 days after the day on which the record was created; and
- (b) retain the records referred to in subsection (2) in accordance with any record retention requirements under the Privacy Act.
Ministerial request
(4) The screening authority must make the records referred to in subsections (1) and (2) available to the Minister on request.
Temperature screening facilities
30 The operator of an aerodrome must make facilities available for temperature screening that are accessible without having to enter a restricted area.
Requirement — air carrier representative
31 An air carrier must ensure that the screening authority at the aerodrome has been provided with the name and telephone number of the on-duty representative of the air carrier for the purpose of facilitating the return of checked baggage to persons who are denied entry to a restricted area under section 24.
Face Masks
Non-application
32 (1) Sections 33 to 38 do not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
- (b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
- (c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
- (d) a person who is unconscious;
- (e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
- (f) a crew member;
- (g) a gate agent.
Face mask readily available
(2) An adult responsible for a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age must ensure that a face mask is readily available to the child before boarding an aircraft for a flight.
Wearing of face mask
(3) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under section 35 and complies with any instructions given by a gate agent under section 36 if the child
- (a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
- (b) is at least six years of age.
Notification
33 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person must
- (a) be in possession of a face mask before boarding;
- (b) wear the face mask at all times during the boarding process, during the flight and from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building; and
- (c) comply with any instructions given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.
Obligation to possess face mask
34 Every person who is at least six years of age must be in possession of a face mask before boarding an aircraft for a flight.
Wearing of face mask — persons
35 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a person to wear a face mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.
Exceptions — person
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the person could be endangered by wearing a face mask;
- (b) when the person is drinking or eating, unless a crew member instructs the person to wear a face mask;
- (c) when the person is taking oral medications;
- (d) when a gate agent or a crew member authorizes the removal of the face mask to address unforeseen circumstances or the person's special needs; or
- (e) when a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member authorizes the removal of the face mask to verify the person's identity.
Exceptions — flight deck
(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to any of the following persons when they are on the flight deck:
- (a) a Department of Transport air carrier inspector;
- (b) an inspector of the civil aviation authority of the state where the aircraft is registered;
- (c) an employee of the private operator or air carrier who is not a crew member and who is performing their duties;
- (d) a pilot, flight engineer or flight attendant employed by a wholly owned subsidiary or a code share partner of the air carrier;
- (e) a person who has expertise related to the aircraft, its equipment or its crew members and who is required to be on the flight deck to provide a service to the private operator or air carrier.
Compliance
36 A person must comply with any instructions given by a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.
Prohibition — private operator or air carrier
37 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if
- (a) the person is not in possession of a face mask; or
- (b) the person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.
Refusal to comply
38 (1) If, during a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates, a person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask, the private operator or air carrier must
- (a) keep a record of
- (i) the date and flight number,
- (ii) the person's name, date of birth and contact information, including the person's home address, telephone number and email address,
- (iii) the person's seat number, and
- (iv) the circumstances related to the refusal to comply; and
- (b) inform the Minister as soon as feasible of any record created under paragraph (a).
Retention period
(2) The private operator or air carrier must retain the record referred to in paragraph (1)(a) for a period of at least 12 months after the day of the flight.
Ministerial request
(3) The private operator or air carrier must make the records referred to in paragraph (1)(a) available to the Minister on request.
Wearing of face mask — crew member
39 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a crew member to wear a face mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.
Exceptions — crew member
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the crew member could be endangered by wearing a face mask;
- (b) when the wearing of a face mask by the crew member could interfere with operational requirements or the safety of the flight; or
- (c) when the crew member is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.
Exception — flight deck
(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to a crew member who is a flight crew member when they are on the flight deck.
Wearing of face mask — gate agent
40 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a gate agent to wear a face mask during the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.
Exceptions
(2) Subsection (1) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the gate agent could be endangered by wearing a face mask; or
- (b) when the gate agent is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.
Exception — physical barrier
(3) During the boarding process, subsection (1) does not apply to a gate agent if the gate agent is separated from any other person by a physical barrier that allows the gate agent and the other person to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.
Deplaning
Non-application
41 (1) Section 42 does not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
- (b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
- (c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
- (d) a person who is unconscious;
- (e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
- (f) a person who is on a flight that originates in Canada and is destined to another country.
Wearing of face mask
(2) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under section 42 if the child
- (a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
- (b) is at least six years of age.
Wearing of face mask — person
42 A person who is on board an aircraft must wear a face mask at all times from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building, including by a passenger loading bridge.
Screening Authority
Definition of screening authority
43 (1) For the purposes of sections 44 and 47, screening authority means a person responsible for the screening of persons and goods at an aerodrome set out in the schedule to the CATSA Aerodrome Designation Regulations or at any other place designated by the Minister under subsection 6(1.1) of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act.
Non-application
(2) Sections 44 to 47 do not apply to any of the following persons:
- (a) a child who is less than two years of age;
- (b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
- (c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
- (d) a person who is unconscious;
- (e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
- (f) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
- (g) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency.
Wearing of face mask
(3) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under subsection 44(2) and removes it when required by a screening officer to do so under subsection 44(3) if the child
- (a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
- (b) is at least six years of age.
Requirement — passenger screening checkpoint
44 (1) A screening authority must notify a person who is subject to screening at a passenger screening checkpoint that they must wear a face mask at all times during screening.
Wearing of face mask — person
(2) Subject to subsection (3), a person who is the subject of screening referred to in subsection (1) must wear a face mask at all times during screening.
Requirement to remove face mask
(3) A person who is required by a screening officer to remove their face mask during screening must do so.
Wearing of face mask — screening officer
(4) A screening officer must wear a face mask at a passenger screening checkpoint when conducting the screening of a person if, during the screening, the screening officer is two metres or less from the person being screened.
Requirement — non-passenger screening checkpoint
45 (1) A person who presents themselves at a non-passenger screening checkpoint to enter into a restricted area must wear a face mask at all times.
Wearing of face mask — screening officer
(2) Subject to subsection (3), a screening officer must wear a face mask at all times at a non-passenger screening checkpoint.
Exceptions
(3) Subsection (2) does not apply
- (a) when the safety of the screening officer could be endangered by wearing a face mask; or
- (b) when the screening officer is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.
Exception — physical barrier
46 Sections 44 and 45 do not apply to a person, including a screening officer, if the person is two metres or less from another person and both persons are separated by a physical barrier that allows them to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.
Prohibition — passenger screening checkpoint
47 (1) A screening authority must not permit a person who has been notified to wear a face mask and refuses to do so to pass beyond a passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.
Prohibition — non-passenger screening checkpoint
(2) A screening authority must not permit a person who refuses to wear a face mask to pass beyond a non-passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.
Designated Provisions
Designation
48 (1) The provisions of this Interim Order set out in column 1 of Schedule 3 are designated as provisions the contravention of which may be dealt with under and in accordance with the procedure set out in sections 7.7 to 8.2 of the Act.
Maximum amounts
(2) The amounts set out in column 2 of Schedule 3 are the maximum amounts of the penalty payable in respect of a contravention of the designated provisions set out in column 1.
Notice
(3) A notice referred to in subsection 7.7(1) of the Act must be in writing and must specify
- (a) the particulars of the alleged contravention;
- (b) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent has the option of paying the amount specified in the notice or filing with the Tribunal a request for a review of the alleged contravention or the amount of the penalty;
- (c) that payment of the amount specified in the notice will be accepted by the Minister in satisfaction of the amount of the penalty for the alleged contravention and that no further proceedings under Part I of the Act will be taken against the person on whom the notice in respect of that contravention is served or to whom it is sent;
- (d) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be provided with an opportunity consistent with procedural fairness and natural justice to present evidence before the Tribunal and make representations in relation to the alleged contravention if the person files a request for a review with the Tribunal; and
- (e) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be considered to have committed the contravention set out in the notice if they fail to pay the amount specified in the notice and fail to file a request for a review with the Tribunal within the prescribed period.
Repeal
49 The Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 31, made on June 11, 2021, is repealed.
SCHEDULE 1
(Subsection 10.3(2))
Name |
---|
India |
SCHEDULE 2
(Subsection 20(2))
Name | ICAO Location Indicator |
---|---|
Calgary International Airport | CYYC |
Edmonton International Airport | CYEG |
Halifax / Robert L. Stanfield International Airport | CYHZ |
Kelowna International Airport | CYLW |
Montréal / Pierre Elliott Trudeau International Airport | CYUL |
Ottawa / Macdonald-Cartier International Airport | CYOW |
Québec / Jean Lesage International Airport | CYQB |
Regina International Airport | CYQR |
Saskatoon / John G. Diefenbaker International Airport | CYXE |
St. John's International Airport | CYYT |
Toronto / Billy Bishop Toronto City Airport | CYTZ |
Toronto / Lester B. Pearson International Airport | CYYZ |
Vancouver International Airport | CYVR |
Victoria International Airport | CYYJ |
Winnipeg / James Armstrong Richardson International Airport | CYWG |
SCHEDULE 3
(Subsections 48(1) and (2))
Column 1 Designated Provision |
Column 2 Maximum Amount of Penalty ($) |
|
---|---|---|
Individual | Corporation | |
Subsection 2(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 2(2) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 2(3) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 3(1) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 3(2) | 5,000 | |
Section 4 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Section 5 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 8(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 8(2) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 8(3) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 8(4) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 8(5) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 8(7) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Section 9 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Section 10 | 5,000 | |
Section 10.2 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 10.3(1) | 5,000 | |
Section 10.5 | 5,000 | |
Section 10.6 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Section 10.7 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 12(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 12(2) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 13(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 13(2) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 14(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 14(2) | 25,000 | |
Section 15 | 5,000 | |
Section 16 | 25,000 | |
Section 17 | 25,000 | |
Subsection 18(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 18(2) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 18(3) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 18(4) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 19(3) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 19(4) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 19(5) | 25,000 | |
Section 21 | 5,000 | |
Subsection 22(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 22(2) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 23(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 23(2) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 24(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 24(2) | 25,000 | |
Section 25 | 5,000 | |
Subsection 26(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 26(2) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 26(3) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 26(4) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 26(5) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 26(6) | 5,000 | |
Section 27 | 25,000 | |
Section 28 | 25,000 | |
Subsection 29(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 29(2) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 29(3) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 29(4) | 25,000 | |
Section 30 | 25,000 | |
Section 31 | 25,000 | |
Subsection 32(2) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 32(3) | 5,000 | |
Section 33 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Section 34 | 5,000 | |
Subsection 35(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Section 36 | 5,000 | |
Section 37 | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 38(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 38(2) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 38(3) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 39(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 40(1) | 5,000 | 25,000 |
Subsection 41(2) | 5,000 | |
Section 42 | 5,000 | |
Subsection 43(3) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 44(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 44(2) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 44(3) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 44(4) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 45(1) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 45(2) | 5,000 | |
Subsection 47(1) | 25,000 | |
Subsection 47(2) | 25,000 |
INNOVATION, SCIENCE AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT CANADA
RADIOCOMMUNICATION ACT
Notice No. SMSE-008-21 — Release of SPR-004, Issue 1
Notice is hereby given that Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada has published the following document:
- Supplementary Procedure SPR-004, Issue 1, for Radio Standards Specification RSS-102, Radio Frequency (RF) Exposure Compliance of Radiocommunication Apparatus (All Frequency Bands)
SPR-004 sets out the general test methods to be followed when carrying out an RF exposure compliance assessment of wireless devices implementing device-based time-averaging methods for the management and/or mitigation of specific absorption rate (SAR) in the 4 MHz to 6 GHz frequency band.
This document is now official and available on the Published documents page of the Spectrum management and telecommunications website.
Submitting comments
Comments and suggestions for improving this document may be submitted online using the Standard Change Request form.
June 18, 2021
Martin Proulx
Director General
Engineering, Planning and Standards Branch
PRIVY COUNCIL OFFICE
Appointment opportunities
We know that our country is stronger — and our government more effective — when decision-makers reflect Canada's diversity. The Government of Canada has implemented an appointment process that is transparent and merit-based, strives for gender parity, and ensures that Indigenous peoples and minority groups are properly represented in positions of leadership. We continue to search for Canadians who reflect the values that we all embrace: inclusion, honesty, fiscal prudence, and generosity of spirit. Together, we will build a government as diverse as Canada.
We are equally committed to providing a healthy workplace that supports one's dignity, self-esteem and the ability to work to one's full potential. With this in mind, all appointees will be expected to take steps to promote and maintain a healthy, respectful and harassment-free work environment.
The Government of Canada is currently seeking applications from diverse and talented Canadians from across the country who are interested in the following positions.
Current opportunities
The following opportunities for appointments to Governor in Council positions are currently open for applications. Every opportunity is open for a minimum of two weeks from the date of posting on the Governor in Council appointments website.
Position | Organization | Closing date |
---|---|---|
Commissioner | British Columbia Treaty Commission | |
Member | Canada Council for the Arts | |
Vice-Chairperson | Canada Council for the Arts | |
President and Chief Executive Officer | Canada Development Investment Corporation | |
Commissioner for Employers | Canada Employment Insurance Commission | |
Director | Canada Infrastructure Bank | |
Director | Canada Mortgage and Housing Corporation | |
Member of the Board of Directors | Canada Post | |
Chairperson | Canada-Nova Scotia Offshore Petroleum Board | |
Chief Executive Officer | Canadian Centre on Substance Abuse | |
Member | Canadian Cultural Property Export Review Board | |
Chairperson | Canadian Dairy Commission | |
Chief Executive Officer | Canadian Dairy Commission | |
Accessibility Commissioner | Canadian Human Rights Commission | |
Federal Housing Advocate | Canadian Human Rights Commission | |
Chairperson | Canadian Human Rights Tribunal | |
Member | Canadian Institutes of Health Research | |
Director | Canadian Museum of History | |
Member | Canadian Museum of Nature | |
Director | Canadian Race Relations Foundation | |
Chairperson | Destination Canada | |
Director | Destination Canada | |
Director | Freshwater Fish Marketing Corporation | |
Member | Great Lakes Pilotage Authority Canada | |
Director (Federal) | Hamilton-Oshawa Port Authority | |
Governor | International Development Research Centre | |
Chairperson | Laurentian Pilotage Authority Canada | |
Chairperson | Military Police Complaints Commission of Canada | |
Member | Military Police Complaints Commission of Canada | |
Member | National Arts Centre Corporation | |
Member | National Research Council Canada | |
Member | National Seniors Council | |
Chief Accessibility Officer | Office of the Chief Accessibility Officer | |
Commissioner and Director | Office of the Commissioner of Indigenous Languages | |
Member | Payments in Lieu of Taxes Dispute Advisory Panel | |
Director | Public Sector Pension Investment Board of Canada | |
Member | Public Service Pension Advisory Committee | |
Director (Federal) | Québec Port Authority | |
Chairperson | Standards Council of Canada | |
Registrar | Supreme Court of Canada | |
Director (Federal) | Toronto Port Authority | |
Chairperson and Member | Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada | |
Vice-Chairperson | Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada | |
Director (Federal) | Trois-Rivières Port Authority | |
Chairperson | Windsor-Detroit Bridge Authority | |
Director | Windsor-Detroit Bridge Authority |