Canada Gazette, Part I, Volume 155, Number 10: GOVERNMENT NOTICES

March 6, 2021

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Publication after screening assessment of 13 substances in the Aliphatic Amines Group specified on the Domestic Substances List (paragraphs 68(b) and (c) or subsection 77(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)

Whereas 11 substances in the Aliphatic Amines Group identified in the annex below are substances identified under subsection 73(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999;

Whereas a summary of the draft screening assessment conducted on aliphatic amines, including two substances identified in the annex below, pursuant to paragraphs 68(b) and (c) of the Act and on 11 substances pursuant to section 74 of the Act is annexed hereby;

And whereas it is proposed to conclude that all long-chain aliphatic amines, including the nine substances identified in the annex below, meet one or more of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act;

And whereas it is proposed to conclude that the four short-chain aliphatic amines, dimethylbenzylamine, ethylenediamine, diethylenetriamine, and dimethylamine, do not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act;

Notice is furthermore given that the ministers have released a risk management scope document for long-chain aliphatic amines to initiate discussions with stakeholders on the development of risk management options.

Notice therefore is hereby given that the ministers propose to take no further action at this time under section 77 of the Act for the three short-chain aliphatic amines, ethylenediamine, diethylenetriamine and dimethylamine, identified under subsection 73(1) of the Act.

Notice is further given that the ministers propose to take no further action on the remaining short-chain aliphatic amine, dimethylbenzylamine, at this time.

Public comment period

Any person may, within 60 days after publication of this notice, file with the Minister of the Environment written comments on the measure the ministers propose to take and on the scientific considerations on the basis of which the measure is proposed. More information regarding the scientific considerations may be obtained from the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website. All comments must cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, and the date of publication of this notice and be addressed to the Executive Director, Program Development and Engagement Division, Department of the Environment, Gatineau, Quebec K1A 0H3, by email to eccc.substances.eccc@canada.ca or by using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada's Single Window.

In accordance with section 313 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, any person who provides information in response to this notice may submit with the information a request that it be treated as confidential.

Kwasi Nyarko
Acting Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

Gwen Goodier
Director General
Industrial Sectors and Chemicals Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

David Morin
Director General
Safe Environments Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of Health

ANNEX

Summary of the draft screening assessment of the Aliphatic Amines Group

Pursuant to section 68 or 74 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (CEPA), the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health have conducted a screening assessment on 13 of 19 substances referred to collectively under the Chemicals Management Plan as the Aliphatic Amines Group. These 19 substances were identified as priorities for assessment as they met categorization criteria under subsection 73(1) of CEPA or were considered a priority on the basis of other human health concerns. Out of the 19 substances, 4 were determined to be of low concern through other approaches, and decisions for these substances are provided in separate reports.^{footnote 1,}^{footnote 2} In addition, 2 of the 19 substances have been moved from the Aliphatic Amines Group into other groups under the Chemicals Management Plan.^{footnote 3} Accordingly, this screening assessment addresses the 13 substances listed in the table below. The 13 substances addressed in this screening assessment will hereinafter be referred to as the Aliphatic Amines Group. The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Numbers (CAS RNs^{footnote 4}), the Domestic Substances List (DSL) names, the common names and acronyms, if applicable, as well as the subgroup of these substances are listed in the table below.

Substances in the Aliphatic Amines Group
CAS RN	DSL name	Common name (acronym)	Subgroup
103-83-3^{table a1 note a}	Benzenemethanamine, N, N-dimethyl-	Dimethylbenzylamine	Short-chain
107-15-3	1,2-Ethanediamine	Ethylenediamine	Short-chain
111-40-0	1,2-Ethanediamine, N-(2-aminoethyl)-	Diethylenetriamine	Short-chain
112-69-6	1-Hexadecanamine, N, N-dimethyl-	Hexadecyldimethylamine	Long-chain
124-30-1	1-Octadecanamine	Octadecylamine	Long-chain
124-40-3	Methanamine, N-methyl-	Dimethylamine	Short-chain
61788-46-3^{table a1 note b}	Amines, coco alkyl	Cocoamine	Long-chain
61789-79-5^{table a1 note a} ^{table a1 note b}	Amines, bis(hydrogenated tallow alkyl)	Bis(hydrogenated tallow alkyl) amines (BHTAA)	Long-chain
61790-59-8^{table a1 note b}	Amines, hydrogenated tallow alkyl, acetates	Hydrogenated tallow alkyl amines acetates (HTAAA)	Long-chain
61790-60-1^{table a1 note b}	Amines, tallow alkyl, acetates	Tallow alkyl amines acetates (TAAA)	Long-chain
61791-55-7^{table a1 note b}	Amines, N-tallow alkyltrimethylenedi-	N-tallow alkyltrimethylenediamines (TAPDA)	Long-chain
68479-04-9^{table a1 note b}	1,3-Propanediamine, N-[3-(tridecyloxy)propyl]-, branched	1,3-Propanediamine, N-[3-(tridecyloxy)propyl]-, branched (DPDAB)	Long-chain
68783-25-5^{table a1 note b}	Amines, N,N,N'-trimethyl-N'-tallow alkyltrimethylenedi-	N,N,N'-trimethyl-N'-tallow alkyltrimethylenediamines (TMTADA)	Long-chain
Table a1 note(s) Table a1 note a This substance was not identified under subsection 73(1) of CEPA but was included in this assessment as it was considered a priority on the basis of other human health concerns. Return to table a1 note a referrer Table a1 note b The substance bearing this CAS RN is a UVCB (substance of unknown or variable composition, complex reaction products, or biological materials). Return to table a1 note b referrer

The 13 substances in the Aliphatic Amines Group were organized into the following two subgroups based on carbon chain length: short-chain aliphatic amines (alkyl chain <8 carbon atoms) and long-chain aliphatic amines (alkyl chain ≥8 carbon atoms). Functionally, long-chain, but not short-chain, aliphatic amines are surface-active compounds (surfactants).

According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, for the reporting year of 2011, four substances in the Aliphatic Amines Group (cocoamine, BHTAA, HTAAA, and TAAA) were manufactured in Canada in quantities between 10 000 and 170 000 kg whereas TAPDA was manufactured in quantities between 100 000 and 1 000 000 kg. The other eight substances in the Aliphatic Amines Group were not manufactured in Canada in quantities above the reporting threshold of 100 kg. In 2011, dimethylamine was imported into Canada in a quantity greater than 10 million kilograms. Ethylenediamine, diethylenetriamine, octadecylamine, cocoamine, and DPDAB were imported into Canada in quantities between 100 000 to 1 000 000 kg. In 2011, dimethylbenzylamine, hexadecyldimethylamine, BHTAA, and TAPDA were imported into Canada in quantities between 10 000 to 100 000 kg/year, while 7 900 kg of TMTADA were imported. The remaining aliphatic amines (HTAAA and TAAA) were not reported to be imported above 100 kg.

Major industrial uses of long-chain aliphatic amines include polyurethane foam production, formulation of cleaning products and personal care products, flotation in mineral extraction, and formulation of asphalt emulsions. Aliphatic amines are also used as intermediates in the production of various other chemicals with diverse applications. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, aliphatic amines are used in a variety of consumer, commercial and industrial products in Canada. Consumer uses include automotive care, pest control, building and construction materials, cleaning and furnishing care, personal care, paints and coatings, automotive, aircraft and transportation, laundry and dishwashing, and drugs. In Canada, ethylenediamine, diethylenetriamine, dimethylamine, and BHTAA may be used as components in food packaging materials, while octadecylamine and cocoamine may be used as components in incidental additives used in food processing establishments. Ethylenediamine and octadecylamine were identified as ingredients in human drug products in Canada. Hexadecyldimethylamine was identified as a non-medicinal ingredient (NMI) in natural health products in Canada while octadecylamine and cocoamine were notified to be present in cosmetics in Canada. Ethylenediamine, dimethylamine, hexadecyldimethylamine, cocoamine, HTAAA, and TAPDA were identified as formulants in pest control products registered in Canada.

The ecological risks of the four short-chain aliphatic amine substances were characterized individually using the ecological risk classification of organic substances (ERC), which is a risk-based approach that employs multiple metrics for both hazard and exposure, with weighted consideration of multiple lines of evidence for determining risk classification. Based on the outcome of the ERC analysis, dimethylbenzylamine, ethylenediamine, diethylenetriamine and dimethylamine are considered unlikely to be causing ecological harm.

The ecological risk of the nine long-chain aliphatic amines was assessed using a class-based approach, which considers all long-chain aliphatic amines that are captured within the monoamine and diamine subclasses. A class-based approach is appropriate, as long-chain aliphatic amines are cationic surfactants with similar reactivity and ecotoxicity, and they may co-occur in the environment and impact it collectively.

Monoamine subclass:

Monoamines that include one or two long-chain alkyls (C₈-C₂₂ linear or branched, saturated or unsaturated) attached to the nitrogen, with the remaining one or two substituents being any combination of hydrogen atoms or methyl groups; and
Ethers of 1-propanamine, N-methylpropanamine or N,N-dimethylpropanamine with one long-chain alkyl (C₈-C₂₂ linear or branched, saturated or unsaturated).

Diamine subclass:

1,3-Propanediamines and N- and N′-methylated-1,3-propanediamines with one long-chain alkyl (C₈-C₂₂ linear or branched, saturated or unsaturated); and
Ethers of 1,3-propanediamine and N- and N′-methylated-1,3-propanediamines with one long-chain alkyl (C₈-C₂₂ linear or branched, saturated or unsaturated).

The description of the alkyl chain length in the definition above refers to the number of carbon atoms in the long alkyl chain(s) (after the last functional group in the case of diamines and ethers). This definition includes long-chain aliphatic amines alone or as part of a salt.

Long-chain aliphatic amines may be released to the Canadian environment from the formulation, manufacture and consumer use of products containing these substances, as well as from their uses in various industrial processes. Releases to aquatic and terrestrial environments are expected from both diffuse and point sources. The long-chain aliphatic amines are expected to be positively charged at environmentally relevant pH. When released to the aquatic environment, long-chain aliphatic amines will tend to sorb to dissolved and suspended solids. Therefore, these substances may potentially be transported in the water column or settle to bed sediment. Long-chain aliphatic amines do not persist in water, sediment or soil. Long-chain aliphatic amines with alkyl chains of less than C₁₄ have a low to moderate potential for bioaccumulation in aquatic organisms, and those with alkyl chains of C₁₄ and more have a high potential to bioaccumulate.

Experimental data on ecological toxicity for the long-chain aliphatic amines show they have the potential to cause adverse effects in aquatic, sediment, and soil-dwelling organisms at low concentrations. Quantitative ecological exposure scenarios were developed for the most relevant uses and potential releases of long-chain aliphatic amines, including production and processing, polyurethane foam production, down-the-drain release of amine derivatives, use as a flotation agent for mineral extraction, and biosolids application to land. Qualitative ecological exposure scenarios were developed for asphalt emulsion and for fertilizer application and formulation. Predicted exposure concentrations were adjusted for sorption to organic matter in the water column. Risk quotient analyses were conducted to compare the estimated concentrations in aquatic and soil compartments to adverse effect concentrations in aquatic and soil-dwelling organisms. Scenarios for production, processing, production of polyurethane foam (polyol blend), down-the-drain release of amine derivatives, flotation treatment in mineral extraction, formulation of asphalt emulsion, and formulation of fertilizers indicate that long-chain aliphatic amines pose a risk to aquatic organisms, whereas the scenario for polyurethane foam production (flexible polyurethane foam) is unlikely to pose a risk. The scenario for the application of biosolids to land indicates that long-chain aliphatic amines are unlikely to pose a risk to soil-dwelling organisms.

Considering all available lines of evidence presented in this draft screening assessment, there is a risk of harm to the environment from long-chain aliphatic amines. It is proposed to conclude that long-chain aliphatic amines, including the nine long-chain aliphatic amines in this assessment, meet the criteria under paragraph 64(a) of CEPA, as they are entering or may enter the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity. However, it is proposed to conclude that long-chain aliphatic amines, including the nine long-chain aliphatic amines in this assessment, do not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(b) of CEPA, as they are not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends. It is also proposed to conclude that the short-chain aliphatic amines dimethylbenzylamine, diethylenetriamine, dimethylamine, and ethylenediamine do not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(a) or (b) of CEPA, as they are not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity or that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends.

The human health assessment in this report considers each short- and long-chain aliphatic amine in the Aliphatic Amines Group separately due to differences in critical health effects observed. The health effects datasets for some of the short-chain aliphatic amines were limited and read-across approaches were used. General toxicity (e.g. significantly reduced body weight, reduced food consumption, salivation) was identified to be the critical effect associated with exposure to dimethylbenzylamine and dimethylamine. For ethylenediamine, critical effects on the liver, kidneys, lungs, adrenal glands, and effects on blood chemistry were identified. For diethylenetriamine, increased duration of gestation and post-implantation loss were identified as the critical effects. For all of the short-chain aliphatic amines, comparison of levels to which the general population may be exposed from sources such as products available to consumers, food, and/or environmental media, to the critical effect levels resulted in margins of exposure that are considered adequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.

The health effects datasets for some of the long-chain aliphatic amines were limited and read-across approaches were used. Effects on certain lymph nodes were identified to be the critical effects for hexadecyldimethylamine and BHTAA. For octadecylamine and cocoamine, these effects were also accompanied by general toxicity and effects on the gastrointestinal (GI) tract. In addition to the effects mentioned above (i.e. lymph nodes, general toxicity, GI tract), inflammatory effects were also identified for DPDAB.

Potential exposure of Canadians to hexadecyldimethylamine, octadecylamine, cocoamine, and BHTAA can occur from non-prescription drugs, cosmetics, natural health products, products available to consumers, material containing the substance, environmental media, incidental additives, and food packaging materials. Comparison of the exposure estimates for each substance to critical effect levels resulted in margins that are considered to be adequate to address the uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.

For DPDAB, comparison of the potential exposure of Canadians from a two-component marine epoxy adhesive product available to consumers to the critical effect level resulted in a margin that is considered potentially inadequate to address the uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.

With respect to the long-chain aliphatic amines HTAAA, TAAA, TAPDA, and TMTADA, their potential to cause harm to human health was evaluated using the Threshold of Toxicological Concern (TTC)-based Approach for Certain Substances, which is based on the potential hazard of similar chemical structures, as well as chemical-specific genotoxicity data, when available. The exposure estimates generated for HTAAA, TAAA, TAPDA, and TMTADA were lower than the TTC values, indicating a low probability of risk to human health. Therefore, HTAAA, TAAA, TAPDA, and TMTADA are considered to be a low concern for human health at current levels of exposure.

On the basis of the information presented in this draft screening assessment, it is proposed to conclude that DPDAB meets the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA, as it is entering or may enter the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.

On the basis of the information presented in this draft screening assessment, it is proposed to conclude that dimethylbenzylamine, ethylenediamine, diethylenetriamine, dimethylamine, hexadecyldimethylamine, octadecylamine, cocoamine, BHTAA, HTAAA, TAAA, TAPDA, and TMTADA do not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA, as they are not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.

Proposed overall conclusion

It is proposed to conclude that all long-chain aliphatic amines, including hexadecyldimethylamine, octadecylamine, cocoamine, BHTAA, HTAAA, TAAA, TAPDA, DPDAB and TMTADA, meet one or more of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA. It is also proposed to conclude that the four short-chain aliphatic amines, dimethylbenzylamine, ethylenediamine, diethylenetriamine and dimethylamine, do not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA.

It is also proposed to conclude that long-chain aliphatic amines with alklyl chains of C₁₄ and more meet the bioaccumulation criteria as set out in the Persistence and Bioaccumulation Regulations of CEPA, but those with alkyl chains of less than C₁₄ do not, and that long-chain aliphatic amines do not meet the persistence criteria as set out in the Persistence and Bioaccumulation Regulations of CEPA.

The draft screening assessment and the risk management scope document for these substances are available on the Canada.ca (Chemical substances) website.

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Publication after screening assessment of 15 substances in the Benzotriazoles and Benzothiazoles Group specified on the Domestic Substances List (paragraphs 68(b) and (c) or subsection 77(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)

Whereas 10 of the 15 substances identified in the annex below are substances identified under subsection 73(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999;

Whereas a summary of the draft screening assessment conducted on 5 substances pursuant to paragraphs 68(b) and (c) of the Act and on the remaining 10 substances pursuant to section 74 of the Act is annexed hereby;

And whereas it is proposed to conclude that 2-mercaptobenzothiazole and its precursors (i.e. 2-mercaptobenzothiazole, its salts and compounds containing 2-mercaptobenzothiazole bonded to any chemical moiety through disulfide or sulfenamide bonds or bonded with methyl ester thiocyanic acid), including the six benzothiazole substances identified in the annex, meet one or more of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act;

Notice therefore is hereby given that the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health (the ministers) propose to recommend to Her Excellency the Governor in Council that 2-mercaptobenzothiazole, its salts and compounds containing 2-mercaptobenzothiazole bonded to any chemical moiety through disulfide or sulfenamide bonds or bonded with methyl ester thiocyanic acid be added to Schedule 1 of the Act;

Notice is furthermore given that the ministers have released a risk management scope document for these substances to initiate discussions with stakeholders on the development of risk management actions.

And whereas it is proposed to conclude that the nine benzotriazole substances do not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act,

Notice therefore is hereby given that the ministers propose to take no further action at this time under section 77 of the Act for the seven benzotriazole substances identified under subsection 73(1) of the Act,

Notice therefore is hereby given that the ministers propose to take no further action at this time for the remaining two benzotriazole substances identified under paragraphs 68(b) and (c) of the Act.

Public comment period

As specified under subsection 77(5) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, any person may, within 60 days after publication of this notice, file with the Minister of the Environment written comments on the measure the ministers propose to take and on the scientific considerations on the basis of which the measure is proposed. More information regarding the scientific considerations may be obtained from the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website. All comments must cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, and the date of publication of this notice and be addressed to the Executive Director, Program Development and Engagement Division, Department of the Environment, Gatineau, Quebec K1A 0H3, by email to eccc.substances.eccc@canada.ca, or by using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada's Single Window.

Jacqueline Gonçalves
Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

Gwen Goodier
Director General
Industrial Sectors and Chemicals Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

David Morin
Director General
Safe Environments Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of Health

ANNEX

Summary of the draft screening assessment of the Benzotriazoles and Benzothiazoles Group

Pursuant to section 68 or 74 of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (CEPA), the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health have conducted a screening assessment of 15 of the 17 substances referred to collectively under the Chemicals Management Plan as the Benzotriazoles and Benzothiazoles Group. Ten of these 15 substances were identified as priorities for assessment, as they met the categorization criteria under subsection 73(1) of CEPA, and one substance was considered a priority on the basis of other human health concerns. Although the remaining four substances did not meet the categorization criteria (TBBS, CBS, benzotriazole, and UV-320), they were included in this assessment because they were identified as priorities for assessment in the Identification of Risk Assessment Priorities (IRAP) review. Two of the 17 substances were determined to be of low concern through other approaches, and decisions for these substances are provided in separate reports.^{footnote 5,}^{footnote 6} Accordingly, this screening assessment addresses the 15 substances listed in the table below. The 15 substances addressed in this screening assessment will hereinafter be referred to as the Benzotriazoles and Benzothiazoles Group. The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Numbers (CAS RNs^{footnote 4}), the Domestic Substances List (DSL) names and the common names or acronyms of these substances, as well as their subgroup as either benzotriazoles or benzothiazoles, are listed in the table below.

Substances in the Benzotriazoles and Benzothiazoles Group
CAS RN	DSL name	Common name or acronym	Subgroup
95-14-7^{table a2 note a}	1H-Benzotriazole	Benzotriazole	Benzotriazoles
3147-75-9	Phenol, 2-(2H-benzotriazol-2-yl)4-(1,1,3,3-tetramethylbutyl)-	UV-329	Benzotriazoles
3846-71-7^{table a2 note a}	Phenol, 2-(2H-benzotriazol-2-yl)4,6-bis(1,1-dimethylethyl)-	UV-320	Benzotriazoles
3896-11-5	Phenol, 2-(5-chloro-2H-benzotriazol-2-yl)6-(1,1-dimethylethyl)-4-methyl-	UV-326	Benzotriazoles
29385-43-1^{table a2 note b}	1H-Benzotriazole, 4(or 5)-methyl-	Tolyltriazole	Benzotriazoles
36437-37-3	Phenol, 2-(2H-benzotriazol-2-yl)-4(1,1-dimethylethyl)-6-(1-methylpropyl)-	UV-350	Benzotriazoles
70321-86-7	Phenol, 2-(2H-benzotriazol-2-yl)4,6-bis(1-methyl-1-phenylethyl)-	UV-234	Benzotriazoles
80595-74-0	1H-Benzotriazole-1-methanamine, N,N-bis(2-ethylhexyl)-5-methyl-	N/A	Benzotriazoles
94270-86-7^{table a2 note b}	1H-Benzotriazole-1-methanamine, N,N-bis(2-ethylhexyl)-ar-methyl-	N/A	Benzotriazoles
95-31-8^{table a2 note a}	2-Benzothiazolesulfenamide, N-(1,1-dimethylethyl)	TBBS	Benzothiazoles
95-33-0^{table a2 note a}	2-Benzothiazolesulfenamide, N-cyclohexyl-	CBS	Benzothiazoles
120-78-5^{table a2 note c}	Benzothiazole, 2,2'-dithiobis-	MBTS	Benzothiazoles
149-30-4	2(3H)-Benzothiazolethione	MBT	Benzothiazoles
2492-26-4	2(3H)-Benzothiazolethione, sodium salt	SMBT	Benzothiazoles
4979-32-2	2-Benzothiazolesulfenamide, N,N-dicyclohexyl-	DCBS	Benzothiazoles
Table a2 note(s) Table a2 note a This substance was prioritized under IRAP. Return to table a2 note a referrer Table a2 note b This substance is a UVCB (unknown or variable composition, complex reaction products or biological material). Return to table a2 note b referrer Table a2 note c This substance was not identified under subsection 73(1) of CEPA but was included in this assessment, as it was considered a priority on the basis of other human health concerns. Return to table a2 note c referrer

Abbreviation: N/A = not available.

The substances in the benzotriazoles subgroup are not expected to occur naturally, while the natural occurrence of the substances in the benzothiazoles subgroup is expected to be rare. The substances in both groups are used in various applications. According to information submitted in response to a CEPA section 71 survey, tolyltriazole was the only substance manufactured in Canada at a quantity between 1 000 and 10 000 kg in either 2014 or 2015. Two substances, UV-320 and the substance bearing CAS RN 80595-74-0, were not reported to be imported above 100 kg, while the remaining substances in the Benzotriazoles and Benzothiazoles Group were imported into Canada in total quantities for each substance ranging from 100 to 1 000 000 kg, for the same years. Substances in the benzotriazoles subgroup are used in various products, including cosmetics, food packaging, and lubricants and greases. Some of these substances are used as UV light stabilizers and corrosion inhibitors. Substances in the benzothiazoles subgroup have uses in automotive products, rubber products, lubricants and greases, and mining. TBBS, CBS, MBTS, MBT, and DCBS are often used as accelerators for the vulcanization of rubber, and SMBT is used as a corrosion inhibitor.

The ecological risks of the substances in the benzotriazoles subgroup were characterized using the ecological risk classification of organic substances (ERC), which is a risk-based approach that employs multiple metrics for both hazard and exposure, with weighted consideration of multiple lines of evidence for determining risk classification. Hazard profiles are based principally on metrics regarding mode of toxic action, chemical reactivity, food web – derived internal toxicity thresholds, bioavailability, and chemical and biological activity. Metrics considered in the exposure profiles include potential emission rate, overall persistence, and long-range transport potential. A risk matrix is used to assign a low, moderate or high level of potential concern for substances on the basis of their hazard and exposure profiles. Based on the outcome of the ERC analysis, substances in the benzotriazoles subgroup are considered unlikely to be causing ecological harm.

The substances in the benzothiazoles subgroup all contain the 2-mercaptobenzothiazole (MBT) moiety. This moiety was identified as the key part of the molecule that may be released to the Canadian environment based either on direct use and release of MBT or through indirect release due to the degradation of the parent compounds. Precursors to MBT are considered substances that contain an MBT moiety and that can degrade to MBT through any transformation pathway (e.g. hydrolytic, redox, digestive or metabolic) at environmentally, industrially or physiologically relevant conditions. Therefore, the assessment of the benzothiazoles subgroup considers MBT and all substances that are precursors to MBT (herein referred to as MBT and its precursors). Upon exposure to water, the parent compounds are expected to degrade to MBT, which will largely remain in the water given its solubility; however, sorption to particulate matter is possible. In such cases, it would be expected that sorbed substances could settle to the sediment.

Predominant sectors for which release to water may occur include tire and other rubber products manufacturing, use in metalworking fluids and use in some subsectors of the mining industry. Release to terrestrial environments is possible as a result of biosolids application.

Experimental toxicity data indicate that MBT has the potential to cause harm to aquatic organisms at low concentrations. MBT is expected to persist but has low potential to bioaccumulate. Risk quotient analyses were conducted to compare estimated aquatic concentrations to adverse effect concentrations in aquatic organisms for different exposure scenarios. Exposure scenarios for tire and other rubber products manufacturing, use in lubricants, and use in some mining subsectors indicate that MBT poses a risk to aquatic organisms. Scenarios involving releases to soil do not indicate a risk.

Considering all available lines of evidence presented in this draft screening assessment, there is a low risk of harm to the environment from the benzotriazoles subgroup. It is proposed to conclude that the substances in the benzotriazoles subgroup do not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(a) or (b) of CEPA, as they are not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity or that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends.

Considering all available lines of evidence presented in this draft screening assessment, there is a risk of harm to the environment from 2-mercaptobenzothiazole (MBT) and its precursors. It is proposed to conclude that MBT and its precursors, including the substances in the benzothiazoles subgroup, meet the criteria under paragraph 64(a) of CEPA, as they are entering or may enter the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity. However, it is proposed to conclude that the substances in the benzothiazoles subgroup do not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(b) of CEPA, as they are not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends.

With respect to human health, UV-350 was evaluated using the threshold of toxicological concern (TTC)-based approach for certain substances, which is based on the potential hazard of similar chemical structures, as well as chemical-specific genotoxicity data, when available. The estimate of exposure generated for UV-350 was lower than the TTC value, indicating a low probability of risk to human health. Therefore, UV-350 is considered to be of low concern for human health at current levels of exposure.

For the benzotriazoles subgroup, health effects of concern for benzotriazole and tolyltriazole, based largely on health effects associated with benzotriazole, include kidney, liver, uterine, prostate, lymph node, and bone marrow effects and carcinogenicity. For tolyltriazole, additional effects of concern include changes to blood parameters. As the health effects database for UV-329 was limited, the critical health effects for this substance were identified based on health effects associated with the structurally related substance UV-320, which are predominantly liver effects. For UV-326, the health effects of concern are systemic effects. The principal health effects of concern for UV-234 are liver effects. In the absence of substance-specific health effects data for the substance bearing CAS RN 80595-74-0, the health effects of concern for this substance are considered to be the same as those identified for the structurally related substance bearing CAS RN 94270-86-7, which include developmental effects, systemic effects, and effects in the thymus, lymphoid, and spleen.

The general population of Canada may be exposed to certain substances in the benzotriazoles subgroup from environmental media, such as drinking water and indoor air, dietary intake of certain fish and seafood, breast milk, and from the use of products available to consumers, such as cosmetics (e.g. nail products, lip and cheek tint, and soap), ink pens, and automotive products (e.g. lubricant, cooling system repair, and protective removable auto paint). Exposure of the Canadian general population to the substance bearing CAS RN 94270-86-7 is expected to be similar to that of the substance bearing CAS RN 80595-74-0 based on their chemical structures and identified uses. Comparisons of the levels at which critical health effects occur (or, in their absence, the highest tested dose in key studies) and the levels to which the general population may be exposed resulted in margins that are considered adequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases for benzotriazole, UV-329, UV-326, tolyltriazole, UV-234, and the substances bearing CAS RN 80595-74-0 and CAS RN 94270-86-7.

For the benzothiazoles subgroup, the health effect of concern for MBT is bladder cancer based on the International Agency for Research on Cancer (IARC) classification for MBT as a group 2A carcinogen ("probably carcinogenic to humans"). In the absence of substance-specific carcinogenicity data for TBBS, CBS, MBTS, SMBT, and DCBS, effects for the structurally related substance MBT were used to inform cancer risk assessments. For non-cancer effects, the health effect of concern for CBS is kidney effects, and for MBT and SMBT, changes in body and liver weights have been observed, respectively. Due to limited substance-specific data for MBTS, the identification of critical health effects was informed by the structurally similar substances MBT and SMBT.

Potential exposures of the Canadian general population to the benzothiazoles subgroup were estimated based on potential levels in drinking water, dietary intake of certain fish and seafood and on the use of products available to consumers, such as rubber granulates used on synthetic turf, and an automotive lubricant. Comparisons of the critical effect levels to the estimated levels of exposure to TBBS, CBS, MBTS, MBT, SMBT, and DCBS result in margins that are considered adequate to account for uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases.

On the basis of the information presented in this draft screening assessment, it is proposed to conclude that benzotriazole, UV-329, UV-320, UV-326, tolyltriazole, UV-350, UV-234, substances bearing CAS RN 80595-74-0 and CAS RN 94270-86-7, TBBS, CBS, MBTS, MBT, SMBT, and DCBS do not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA, as they are not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.

Proposed overall conclusion

It is proposed to conclude that the nine substances in the benzotriazoles subgroup do not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA and that MBT and its precursors, including the six substances in the benzothiazoles subgroup, meet one or more of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA.

It is also proposed to conclude that MBT meets the persistence criteria but not the bioaccumulation criteria as set out in the Persistence and Bioaccumulation Regulations of CEPA. The remainder of the substances in the benzothiazoles subgroup do not meet the persistence and bioaccumulation criteria as set out in the Persistence and Bioaccumulation Regulations of CEPA.

The draft screening assessment and the risk management scope document for these substances are available on the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website.

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Publication after screening assessment of three substances — 3,5,7-triaza-1-azoniatricyclo[3.3.1.1³,7]decane, 1-(3-chloro-2-propenyl)-, chloride (cis/trans-CTAC), CAS RN^{footnote 7} 4080-31-3; 3,5,7-triaza-1-azoniatricyclo[3.3.1.1³,7]decane, 1-(3-chloro-2-propenyl)-, chloride, (Z)- (cis-CTAC), CAS RN 51229-78-8; 1,3,5,7-tetraazatricyclo[3.3.1.1³,7]decane, hydrochloride, (methenamine hydrochloride), CAS RN 58713-21-6 — specified on the Domestic Substances List (paragraphs 68(b) and (c) or subsection 77(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)

Whereas cis/trans-CTAC is a substance identified under subsection 73(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999;^{footnote 7}

Whereas a summary of the draft screening assessment conducted on cis-CTAC and methenamine hydrochloride pursuant to paragraphs 68(b) and (c) of the Act and on cis/trans-CTAC pursuant to section 74 of the Act is annexed hereby;

And whereas it is proposed to conclude that methenamine hydrochloride does not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act,

Notice therefore is hereby given that the Minister of the Environment and the Minister of Health (the ministers) propose to take no further action on this substance at this time.

And whereas it is proposed to conclude that cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC meet one or more of the criteria set out in section 64 of the Act,

Notice therefore is hereby given that the ministers propose to recommend to Her Excellency the Governor in Council that cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC be added to Schedule 1 of the Act.

Public comment period

Kwasi Nyarko
Acting Director General
Science and Risk Assessment Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

Gwen Goodier
Director General
Industrial Sectors, Chemicals and Waste Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of the Environment

David Morin
Director General
Safe Environments Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of Health

ANNEX

Summary of the draft screening assessment of the Hexamethylenetetramines Group

Substances in the Hexamethylenetetramines Group
CAS RN	DSL name	Common name
4080-31-3^{table b1 note a}	3,5,7-Triaza-1-azoniatricyclo[3.3.1.1³,7]decane, 1-(3-chloro-2-propenyl)-, chloride	Quaternium-15^{table b1 note b} Cis/trans-CTAC
51229-78-8^{table b1 note c}	3,5,7-Triaza-1-azoniatricyclo[3.3.1.1³,7]decane, 1-(3-chloro-2-propenyl)-, chloride, (Z)-	Quaternium-15^{table b1 note d} Cis-CTAC
58713-21-6^{table b1 note c}	1,3,5,7-Tetraazatricyclo[3.3.1.1³,7]decane, hydrochloride	Methenamine hydrochloride
Table b1 note(s) Table b1 note a The substance bearing this CAS RN is a mixture of cis- and trans-1-(3-chloroallyl)-3,5,7-triaza-1-azoniaadamantane chloride (CTAC). Return to table b1 note a referrer Table b1 note b According to the European Commission database for information on cosmetic substances and ingredients (CosIng), "quaternium-15" bears CAS RN 4080-31-3 or is represented by a mixture containing the substance bearing CAS RN 4080-31-3 and the substance bearing CAS RN 51229-78-8. Return to table b1 note b referrer Table b1 note c This substance was not identified under subsection 73(1) of CEPA, but was included in this assessment as it was considered a priority on the basis of other human health concerns. Return to table b1 note c referrer Table b1 note d The Scientific Committee on Consumer Safety (SCCS) in Europe uses the term "quaternium-15" to refer to cis-CTAC (CAS RN 51229-78-8). Return to table b1 note d referrer

The substances in the Hexamethylenetetramines Group have been included in a survey issued pursuant to section 71 of CEPA. In the 2011 calendar year, cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC were imported into Canada at volumes of 10 000 kg to 100 000 kg, and 1 000 kg to 10 000 kg, respectively. There were no reports of cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC in Canada being manufactured above the reporting threshold of 100 kg. There were no reports of methenamine hydrochloride being manufactured in or imported into Canada above the reporting threshold of 100 kg. In Canada, cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC are used in the automotive, aircraft, and transportation sectors; in automotive care products; and in paints and coatings. Consumer uses for these two substances include cleaning products, paints, adhesives, and self-care products (i.e. cosmetics, non-medicinal ingredients in non-prescription drugs, and natural health products). Cis/trans-CTAC is also a medicinal ingredient in drug products. In addition, it may be used as a component in food packaging materials, as well as in food contact surface cleaners and hand cleaners used in food processing establishments. Cis-CTAC may be used as a component in hand cleaners and lubricants used in food processing establishments. Cis/trans-CTAC, cis-CTAC, and methenamine hydrochloride have been identified as formulants in registered pest control products in Canada, with cis/trans-CTAC also identified as an active ingredient in pest control products.

The ecological risks of the substances in the Hexamethylenetetramines Group were characterized using the ecological risk classification of organic substances (ERC), which is a risk-based approach that employs multiple metrics for both hazard and exposure, with weighted consideration of multiple lines of evidence for determining risk classification. Hazard profiles are based principally on metrics regarding mode of toxic action, chemical reactivity, food web – derived internal toxicity thresholds, bioavailability, and chemical and biological activity. Metrics considered in the exposure profiles include potential emission rate, overall persistence, and long-range transport potential. A risk matrix is used to assign a low, moderate, or high level of potential concern for substances on the basis of their hazard and exposure profiles. Based on the outcome of the ERC analysis, cis/trans-CTAC, cis-CTAC, and methenamine hydrochloride are considered unlikely to be causing ecological harm.

Considering all available lines of evidence presented in this draft screening assessment, there is a low risk of harm to the environment from cis/trans-CTAC, cis-CTAC, and methenamine hydrochloride. It is proposed to conclude that cis/trans-CTAC, cis-CTAC, and methenamine hydrochloride do not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(a) or (b) of CEPA, as they are not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that have or may have an immediate or long-term harmful effect on the environment or its biological diversity or that constitute or may constitute a danger to the environment on which life depends.

With respect to the human health assessment, cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC were assessed together, as they are both associated with the common International Nomenclature of Cosmetics Ingredients (INCI) name "quaternium-15," and contain one or more isomers of the compound 3,5,7-triaza-1-azoniatricyclo[3.3.1.1³,7]decane, 1-(3-chloro-2-propenyl)-, chloride (CTAC). Effects on the testes and liver were identified to be the critical effects associated with cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC, by the dermal route of exposure, on the basis of available data in laboratory studies. A comparison of the critical effect levels with estimates of exposure from the use of a non-prescription sunscreen lotion or a body moisturizer (as a natural health product) in younger subpopulations (e.g. infants, toddlers, and children) resulted in margins of exposure (MOEs) that were considered potentially inadequate to address uncertainties in the health effects and exposure databases. The resultant MOEs for these products in other subpopulations (e.g. teenagers and adults) were considered adequate. The resultant MOEs for shampoo, body moisturizer (cosmetic), hair perm/straightener, wall paint, furniture cleaning wipe, and stain remover were considered adequate.

General toxicity (i.e. reduced body weight, food consumption) and developmental effects were identified to be the critical effects associated with cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC, by the oral route of exposure, on the basis of available data in laboratory animal studies. A comparison of the critical effect levels with estimates of oral exposure (i.e. dietary exposure from use in food packaging applications, drinking water, and hand-to-mouth contact with certain consumer products) resulted in MOEs that were considered adequate.

The health effects dataset for methenamine hydrochloride was considered to be limited, and toxicological data from an analogue (i.e. methenamine) was taken into consideration. Methenamine was assessed as part of the Heterocycles Group screening assessment published in June 2019, in which developmental toxicity and potential skin sensitization were identified as critical effects. With respect to exposure, methenamine hydrochloride has only been identified as an impurity in products available to consumers containing cis/trans-CTAC. Comparison of the critical effect levels with an exposure estimate from the most highly exposed subpopulation to cis/trans-CTAC containing methenamine hydrochloride as an impurity resulted in MOEs that are considered adequate to account for uncertainties in the exposure and health effects databases.

On the basis of the information presented in this draft screening assessment, it is proposed to conclude that cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC meet the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA, as they are entering or may enter the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.

On the basis of the information presented in this draft screening assessment, it is proposed to conclude that methenamine hydrochloride does not meet the criteria under paragraph 64(c) of CEPA, as it is not entering the environment in a quantity or concentration or under conditions that constitute or may constitute a danger in Canada to human life or health.

Proposed overall conclusion

It is proposed to conclude that methenamine hydrochloride does not meet any of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA and that cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC do meet one or more of the criteria set out in section 64 of CEPA.

Cis/trans-CTAC and cis-CTAC do not meet the persistence or bioaccumulation criteria as set out in the Persistence and Bioaccumulation Regulations of CEPA.

The draft screening assessment and the risk management scope document for these substances are available on the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website.

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Final guidelines for Canadian drinking water quality for aluminum

Pursuant to subsection 55(3) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, the Minister of Health hereby gives notice of final guidelines for Canadian drinking water quality for aluminum. The guideline technical document is available on the Water Quality website. This document underwent a public consultation period of 60 days in 2019 and was updated to take into consideration the comments received.

February 26, 2021

David Morin
Director General
Safe Environments Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of Health

ANNEX

Guideline value

The maximum acceptable concentration (MAC) for total aluminum in drinking water is 2.9 mg/L (2 900 μg/L) based on a locational running annual average of a minimum of quarterly samples taken in the distribution system.

The operational guidance (OG) value for total aluminum in drinking water is 0.100 mg/L (100 μg/L) to optimize water treatment and distribution system operations. This value is based on a locational running annual average. The sampling frequency required to calculate the locational running annual average will vary based on the type of treatment facility and the sampling location.

Other considerations

Strict pH control and adequate coagulant dosing are necessary to optimize coagulation and minimize aluminum residual concentrations. Coagulant under-dosing results in substantial deterioration of pathogen removal capability and increases residual aluminum concentrations. Any strategy used to minimize residual aluminum concentrations must not compromise the removal of pathogens or interfere with the removal of disinfection by-product precursors.

Executive summary

This guideline technical document was prepared in collaboration with the Federal-Provincial-Territorial Committee on Drinking Water and assesses available information on aluminum.

Exposure

Aluminum is a metal widely distributed in nature. It may be present in water from natural sources or as a result of human activities. The metal is used for many purposes: in the production of construction materials, vehicles, aircraft and electronics; in pharmaceuticals and personal care products; as a food additive; and as a component of food packaging materials. Aluminum salts are commonly added as coagulants during water treatment to remove turbidity, organic matter and microorganisms. Aluminum is also an impurity found in other water treatment chemicals and can leach into drinking water from cement-based materials. In addition, aluminum can be added to drinking water as a result of using activated alumina treatment to remove other contaminants (e.g. arsenic, fluoride).

The Canadian population is exposed to aluminum from its presence in the environment and from a variety of products and processes. The main source for Canadians' exposure is through food, followed sequentially by exposure through soil, drinking water and air. Aluminum concentrations in water vary across Canada, with surface water generally presenting higher concentrations than groundwater. Intake of aluminum from drinking water is not expected to occur through either skin contact or inhalation.

Health effects

Aluminum is not an essential element. Studies in humans have found possible associations between aluminum ingestion and diseases of the nervous system. However, these studies have a number of design limitations and do not provide strong evidence that aluminum can cause these diseases. Studies in animals have consistently observed adverse effects on the nervous system following ingestion of high levels of aluminum, which supports effects seen in human studies. The MAC of 2.9 mg/L is based on neurological effects observed in rats.

Operational and aesthetic considerations

Aluminum can act as an accumulation sink for other contaminants such as arsenic, chromium, manganese and nickel and can influence the concentrations of lead and copper. The OG value of 0.100 mg/L applies to distribution systems and their entry points to minimize the potential accumulation and release of aluminum and co-occurring contaminants. Aluminum can also coat watermains, service lines and water meters, resulting in pressure losses, meter malfunctions or turbid/discoloured water. The OG value of 0.100 mg/L is intended to avoid these issues as well.

Analytical and treatment considerations

Several methods are available for analyzing total aluminum in drinking water at concentrations well below the MAC and OG. Online or portable colorimetric analyzers are important tools for obtaining a rapid indication of changes in aluminum concentrations. These measurements can be used to make quick treatment adjustments, which are critical for effective plant operation. Water utilities should confirm with the responsible drinking water authority in the affected jurisdiction whether results from these units can be used for compliance reporting.

Water treatment strategies should minimize the aluminum concentration that enters the distribution system from the treatment plant. For water treatment plants using aluminum-based coagulants, the aluminum residual is an important process parameter (like pH, temperature, turbidity and other measurements) to practise optimum coagulation.

Measures should also be in place to minimize the contribution of aluminum from other water treatment chemicals or processes.

For naturally occurring aluminum in source water, the only known effective treatment technology is coagulation, which is not typically undertaken in small systems or private water supplies. In cases where aluminum removal is required and coagulation is not feasible, the responsible drinking water authority in the affected jurisdiction should be contacted to discuss possible options.

Distribution system

It is recommended that water utilities develop a distribution system management plan to minimize the accumulation and release of aluminum and co-occurring contaminants in the system. This typically involves minimizing the aluminum concentration entering the distribution system and implementing best practices to maintain stable chemical and biological water quality conditions throughout the system, as well as to minimize physical and hydraulic disturbances.

Application of the guidelines

Note: Specific guidance related to the implementation of drinking water guidelines should be obtained from the appropriate drinking water authority in the affected jurisdiction.

Due to the effect of pH, temperature and natural organic matter (NOM) on aluminum concentrations, seasonal trends can be highly relevant, even for systems that do not add coagulants. Treatment modifications or other operational practices can also impact aluminum concentrations. Thus, water utilities should carefully monitor total aluminum concentrations, from the source through to the distribution system, as concentrations can change. System-specific monitoring plans should be developed to understand a number of issues (in no particular order): (1) whether residual aluminum concentrations increase or decrease from source to tap due to the use of any chemicals during treatment (e.g. for pH adjustment, coagulation, corrosion control, chloramination); (2) the fate and transport of aluminum in the distribution system and its impacts; and (3) for facilities using aluminum-based coagulants whether or not the coagulation process is optimized.

The monitoring plan should capture all seasonal water quality conditions for comparison with the OG value of 0.100 mg/L. Samples should be collected at the entry point to the distribution system and at critical points within the distribution system; a sufficient number of sites should be sampled to be representative of the population served and the hydraulic zones within the distribution system. Areas with variable turbidity (e.g. particulate solids in the water) or conductivity (e.g. dissolved solids in the water) should be targeted. Turbidity and conductivity are general water quality parameters indicating changes in deposit accumulation or release in the distribution system. In the absence of turbidity and conductivity data, sites where indicator bacteria samples are collected can be used in the interim. Sample locations can be refined as water quality data is collected and trends are assessed. Monitoring the inlet and outlet of concrete reservoirs is also suggested to ensure that water quality is not aggressive to these facilities and thereby leaching aluminum into distributed water.

Total aluminum in drinking water, based on a locational running annual average of a minimum of quarterly samples taken in the distribution system, should be calculated for comparison with the MAC of 2.9 mg/L. However, as with all guidelines, any exceedance should be a signal to evaluate the situation, take corrective action(s) and consult with the responsible drinking water authority in the affected jurisdiction. The responsible authority may direct that a plan be developed and implemented to address the situation.

International considerations

Other national and international organizations have drinking water guidelines, standards and/or guidance values. Variations in these values can be attributed to the age of the assessments or to differing policies and approaches, including the choice of key study and the use of different consumption rates, body weights and source allocation factors.

The United States Environmental Protection Agency, the European Union and Australia's National Health and Medical Research Council have not established health-based regulatory limits for aluminum in drinking water. Rather, these agencies and other international agencies have set OG values ranging from 0.050 mg/L to 0.20 mg/L, based on aesthetic or operational considerations.

In its 2010 assessment of aluminum in drinking water, the World Health Organization (WHO) has calculated a non-regulatory health-based value of 0.9 mg/L but has highlighted the importance of not exceeding the practicable levels of 0.1 – 0.2 mg/L. The Canadian guideline value differs from the WHO's health-based value because Canada takes into consideration advancements in science since 2010. The WHO assessment is based on the Joint Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations/WHO Expert Committee on Food Additives's (JECFA) previous Provisional Tolerable Weekly Intake (PTWI) for aluminum of 1 mg/kg body weight per day. JECFA has since revised their PTWI to 2 mg/kg body weight per day based on the key study that is also used to establish the Canadian guidelines.

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Guidance document: Overview of the microbiological aspects of drinking water quality

Pursuant to subsection 55(3) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, the Minister of Health hereby gives notice of a guidance document on the microbiological aspects of drinking water quality. The guidance document is available on the Water Quality website.

February 26, 2021

David Morin
Director General
Safe Environments Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of Health

ANNEX

Summary of the guidance document

The provision of reliable, safe drinking water requires water utilities to take a holistic approach to the management of drinking water supplies. A holistic approach considers risks from all potential contaminants (microbiological, chemical and radiological) in a supply and allows the development of risk management strategies that prioritize risks and minimize potential impacts on human health. There are many examples of risk management approaches for drinking water systems, such as the source-to-tap approach used in the Guidelines for Canadian Drinking Water Quality (GCDWQ) and the water safety plan approach developed by the World Health Organization.

These approaches can be applied to both municipal and residential scale systems. It is widely recognized that microbiological risks are considered a top priority in drinking water management and that the microbiological quality of drinking water should never be compromised. This document integrates the relevant microbiological considerations found in the various documents developed as part of the GCDWQ in order to illustrate their use as part of a source-to-tap approach.

The microbiological overview document summarizes 21 other guidelines that have an impact on microbiological water quality. However, the guideline technical documents and guidance documents should be consulted for detailed information on using the parameters related to microbiological quality to understand the water quality in each component of the drinking water system, including the source water, during the treatment processes, and in the treated and distributed drinking water. For further information, the GCDWQ technical documents can be found on the Water Quality website.

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Publication of results of investigations for 46 substances specified on the Domestic Substances List (paragraph 68(b) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)

Whereas a science approach document was developed pursuant to paragraph 68(b) of the Act, describing a scientific approach that was applied to the substances, in order to identify substances of greater potential concern or substances of low concern for human health;

Whereas the 46 substances in Annex II are identified under subsection 73(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999, or were otherwise identified as priorities based on other human health concerns;

Whereas a summary of the science approach document conducted on the substances pursuant to paragraph 68(b) of the Act is annexed hereby;

And whereas the publication of the scientific approach document will assist the Government of Canada in identifying substances that may be of human health concern in the absence of traditional hazard data,

Notice is hereby given that the Government may use the approach outlined in this science approach document for future chemical prioritization and screening-level assessment activities under sections 68 or 74 of the Act.

Public comment period

Any person may, within 60 days after publication of this notice, file with the Minister of the Environment written comments on the scientific considerations presented in the science approach document. More information regarding the scientific considerations may be obtained from the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website. All comments must cite the Canada Gazette, Part I, and the date of publication of this notice and be addressed to the Executive Director, Program Development and Engagement Division, Department of the Environment, Gatineau, Quebec K1A 0H3, by email to eccc.substances.eccc@canada.ca or by using the online reporting system available through Environment and Climate Change Canada's Single Window.

David Morin
Director General
Safe Environments Directorate
On behalf of the Minister of Health

ANNEX I

Summary of the science approach document

This science approach document (SciAD) presents a quantitative risk-based approach to identify substances of a greater potential concern or substances of low concern for human health. This approach considers high-throughput in vitro bioactivity together with high-throughput toxicokinetic modelling to derive an in vitro-based point of departure (POD_Bioactivity). The purpose of this SciAD is to demonstrate that POD_Bioactivity can provide a lower bound estimate for in vivo-based effect levels derived from oral repeat dose, developmental, and reproductive studies considered under the Chemicals Management Plan (CMP). Therefore, POD_Bioactivity can serve as a protective surrogate in the absence of traditional hazard data. When compared to exposure estimates to establish a bioactivity exposure ratio (BER), it is envisioned that the approach outlined in this SciAD would be used for future chemical prioritization and screening level assessment activities under the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999 (CEPA; Environment Canada and Health Canada 2014).

Health Canada has examined a subset of 46 chemicals that were previously assessed under the CMP to compare POD_Bioactivity with points of departure from oral toxicity studies conducted in animals (POD_Traditional). This was done to demonstrate confidence in using in vitro bioactivity as a surrogate lower bound estimate of in vivo adverse effect levels. This comparison was specifically conducted for oral repeat-dose, developmental, and reproductive studies. The POD_Bioactivity was lower than the lowest POD_Traditional cited in the risk assessment for 43 of the 46 chemicals examined. These findings are consistent with other published case studies using similar methodology. The analysis presented in this SciAD, along with other available case studies, provides evidence that using a POD_Bioactivity would be equal to or be more protective than using a POD_Traditional when used to support modern approaches for priority setting and screening level risk assessments.

Of the 46 substances with POD_Bioactivity, BERs were calculated for 41 substances with available quantitative exposure data. This approach identified 35 substances where the BER indicated that the substances have greater potential for concern. Substances were considered to have potential concern if the POD_Bioactivity was within 1 000-fold of their maximum estimated exposure value.

When applying the BER approach for priority setting, substances with a BER of less than 1 000 would be considered for further action under the CMP. This could include information gathering, the generation of additional data as well as more in-depth risk assessment as considered appropriate. For screening level risk assessments, in the absence of other indicators of hazard and using human exposure estimates that take into account all potential sources of exposure, a BER of greater than 1 000 may be used as a line of evidence to support a decision of not toxic under section 64(c) of CEPA.

A consultation period on this SciAD is being provided to the public, providing an opportunity for comments and additional information in advance of this approach being applied in modernized prioritization and risk assessment efforts. The publication of this scientific approach will assist the Government in identifying data-poor substances that are of low concern or support the identification of substances for further action.

The science approach document is available on the Canada.ca (Chemical Substances) website.

ANNEX II

Substance list
CAS RN	Substance common name
102-06-7	1,3-Diphenylguanidine
103-23-1	Bis(2-ethylhexyl)hexanedioate
106-44-5	p-Cresol
106-89-8	Epichlorohydrin
107-05-1	Allyl chloride
107-51-7	Octamethyltrisiloxane
108-46-3	Resorcinol
112-38-9	10-Undecenoic acid
119-61-9	Benzophenone
123-91-1	1,4-Dioxane
126-73-8	Tributyl phosphate
127-19-5	N,N-Dimethylacetamide
131-11-3	Dimethyl phthalate
1330-78-5	Tricresyl phosphate
13674-84-5	Tris(2-chloroisopropyl)phosphate
13674-87-8	Tris(1,3-dichloro-2-propyl) phosphate
149-57-5	2-Ethylhexanoic acid
1763-23-1	Perfluorooctanesulfonic acid
25013-16-5	Butylated hydroxyanisole
27178-16-1	Diisodecyl hexanedioate
2795-39-3	Potassium perfluorooctanesulfonate
28553-12-0	Diisononyl phthalate
330-54-1	Diuron
3380-34-5	Triclosan
3825-26-1	Ammonium perfluorooctanoate
53-19-0	o,p'-DDD
534-52-1	2-Methyl-4,6-dinitrophenol
548-62-9	Gentian Violet
60-09-3	4-Aminoazobenzene
69-72-7	Salicylic acid
80-05-7	Bisphenol A
87-61-6	1,2,3-Trichlorobenzene
88-12-0	N-Vinyl-2-pyrrolidone
88-72-2	2-Nitrotoluene
88-85-7	Dinoseb
90-04-0	2-Anisidine
91-20-3	Naphthalene
91-22-5	Quinoline
92-52-4	Biphenyl
93-15-2	Methyleugenol
95-48-7	o-Cresol
95-94-3	1,2,4,5-Tetrachlorobenzene
96-23-1	1,3-Dichloro-2-propanol
96-29-7	2-Butanone oxime
97-53-0	Eugenol
98-01-1	Furfural

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

FOOD AND DRUGS ACT

Notice of intent to consult on Health Canada's Order Amending the Fees in Respect of Drugs and Medical Devices Order

In March 2021, Health Canada will launch a public consultation on amendments to the Fees in Respect of Drugs and Medical Devices Order.

Purpose

The purpose of this notice is to inform interested persons of the intent of the Minister of Health to make a consequential amendment to the Fees in Respect of Drugs and Medical Devices Order, SOR/2019-124 (Fees Order), in order to ensure that the description of "new active substance" in Item 1 of Schedule 1 of the Fees Order remains in alignment with the definition of "innovative drug" in the Food and Drug Regulations, should amendments to the definition of "innovative drug" pursuant to the proposed Regulations Amending the Food and Drug Regulations (Improving Access to Generics) [Improving Access to Generics Regulations] be made.

Background

Currently, the description of "new active substance" in Schedule 1 of the Fees Order is aligned with the definition of "innovative drug" in section C.08.004.1 of the Food and Drug Regulations. The proposed Improving Access to Generics Regulations were prepublished in the Canada Gazette, Part I, on March 30, 2019. They would, among other things, amend the definition of "innovative drug" in the Food and Drug Regulations. In light of the amended definition, the proposed Improving Access to Generics Regulations include a consequential amendment to the description of "new active substance" in Schedule 1 of the Fees Order to ensure that the terms "new active substance" and "innovative drug" remain in alignment.

Proposed amendment to the Order

Pursuant to section 30.61 of the Food and Drugs Act, it is the intention of the Minister of Health to amend the Fees Order so that the description of "new active substance" in Schedule 1 is aligned with the definition of "innovative drug" in the Food and Drug Regulations, should an amendment to the definition of "innovative drug" pursuant to the Improving Access to Generics Regulations be made. "Innovative drug" is defined as a drug that contains a medicinal ingredient not previously approved in a drug by the Minister that is not a variation of a previously approved medicinal ingredient, such as a salt, ester, enantiomer, solvate or polymorph. The proposed Improving Access to Generics Regulations would amend the definition of "innovative drug" so that the description of "variation" of a medicinal ingredient is consistent with the terminology used to describe medicinal ingredients in relation to a "therapeutically active component."^{footnote 8}

The proposed consequential amendment to the Fees Order would come into force on the day on which the Improving Access to Generics Regulations come into force.

Rationale

The need for a consequential amendment to the Fees Order arises from the need to maintain the alignment of the description of "new active substance" in Schedule 1 of the Fees Order with the definition of "innovative drug" in the Food and Drug Regulations.

Consultation

The consultation period for this proposed amendment to the Fees Order is 15 calendar days and ends on March 21, 2021.

All comments must cite the title, reference number and the date of publication of this notice, and be addressed to the contact person identified below.

The Department is committed to respecting the privacy of consultation participants. All personal information created, held or collected by the Department will be treated in accordance with the Privacy Act.

Contact

Any inquiries or comments can be directed to Etienne Ouimette, Director General, Resource Management and Operations Directorate, Health Products and Food Branch, Health Canada, 613‑957‑6690 (telephone), hc.cro-brc.sc@canada.ca (email).

DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT

AERONAUTICS ACT

Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 22

Whereas the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 22 is required to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to aviation safety or the safety of the public;

Whereas the provisions of the annexed Order may be contained in a regulation made pursuant to sections 4.71^{footnote a} and 4.9^{footnote b}, paragraphs 7.6(1)(a)^{footnote c} and (b)^{footnote d} and section 7.7^{footnote e} of the Aeronautics Act^{footnote f};

And whereas, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1.2)^{footnote g} of that Act, the Minister of Transport has consulted with the persons and organizations that that Minister considers appropriate in the circumstances before making the annexed Order;

Therefore, the Minister of Transport, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1)^{footnote g} of the Aeronautics Act ^{footnote f}, makes the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 22.

Ottawa, February 19, 2021

Omar Alghabra
Minister of Transport

Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 22

Interpretation

Definitions

1 (1) The following definitions apply in this Interim Order.

aerodrome security personnel: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (personnel de sûreté de l'aérodrome)
air carrier: means any person who operates a commercial air service under Subpart 1, 3, 4 or 5 of Part VII of the Regulations. (transporteur aérien)
checked baggage: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (bagages enregistrés)
COVID-19: means the coronavirus disease 2019. (COVID-19)
COVID-19 molecular test: means a COVID-19 screening or diagnostic test carried out by an accredited laboratory, including a test performed using the method of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) or reverse transcription loop-mediated isothermal amplification (RT-LAMP). (essai moléculaire relatif à la COVID-19 )
document of entitlement: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (document d'autorisation)
elevated temperature: means a temperature within the range set out in the standards. (température élevée)
foreign national: means a person who is not a Canadian citizen or a permanent resident and includes a stateless person. (étranger)
non-passenger screening checkpoint: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des non-passagers)
passenger screening checkpoint: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (point de contrôle des passagers)
peace officer: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (agent de la paix)
Regulations: means the Canadian Aviation Regulations. (Règlement)
restricted area: has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012. (zone réglementée)
screening officer: has the same meaning as in section 2 of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act. (agent de contrôle)
standards: means the document entitled the Transport Canada Temperature Screening Standards, published by the Minister, as amended from time to time. (normes)

Interpretation

(2) Unless the context requires otherwise, all other words and expressions used in this Interim Order have the same meaning as in the Regulations.

Conflict

(3) In the event of a conflict between this Interim Order and the Regulations or the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012, the Interim Order prevails.

Definition of face mask

(4) For the purposes of this Interim Order, a face mask means any mask, including a non-medical mask that meets all of the following requirements:

(a) it is made of multiple layers of tightly woven materials such as cotton or linen;
(b) it completely covers a person's nose, mouth and chin without gaping;
(c) it can be secured to a person's head with ties or ear loops.

Face masks — lip reading

(5) Despite paragraph (4)(a), the portion of a face mask in front of a wearer's lips may be made of transparent material that permits lip reading if

(a) the rest of the face mask is made of multiple layers of tightly woven materials such as cotton or linen; and
(b) there is a tight seal between the transparent material and the rest of the face mask.

Notification

Federal, provincial and territorial measures

2 (1) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be subject to measures to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.

Suitable quarantine plan and prepaid accommodation

(2) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person before the person boards the aircraft for the flight that they may be required, under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act, to provide, before boarding the aircraft, to the Minister of Health by the electronic means specified by that Minister a suitable quarantine plan and, beginning on February 21, 2021 at 11:59:59 p.m. Eastern Standard Time, evidence of prepaid accommodation arrangements that enables them to remain in quarantine at a government-authorized accommodation for a three-day period that begins on the day on which they enter Canada or, if the person is not required under that order to provide the plan and the evidence, their contact information. The private operator or air carrier must also notify every person that they may be liable to a fine, if this requirement applies to them and they fail to comply with it.

False declarations

(3) A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide a confirmation referred to in subsection 3(1) that they know to be false or misleading.

Confirmation

Federal, provincial and territorial measures

3 (1) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country, every person must confirm to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may be subject to a measure to prevent the spread of COVID-19 taken by the provincial or territorial government with jurisdiction where the destination aerodrome for that flight is located or by the federal government.

False declaration

(2) A person must not provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) that they know to be false or misleading.

Exception

(3) A competent adult may provide a confirmation referred to in subsection (1) on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult.

Prohibition

4 A private operator or air carrier operating a flight between two points in Canada or a flight to Canada departing from any other country must not permit a person to board the aircraft for the flight if the person is a competent adult and does not provide a confirmation that they are required to provide under subsection 3(1).

Foreign Nationals

Prohibition

5 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a foreign national to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates to Canada departing from any other country.

Exception

6 Section 5 does not apply to a foreign national who is permitted to enter Canada under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act.

Health Check

Non-application

7 Sections 8 to 10 do not apply to either of the following persons:

(a) a crew member;
(b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.

Health check

8 (1) A private operator or air carrier must conduct a health check of every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates by asking questions to verify whether they exhibit any of the following symptoms:

(a) a fever;
(b) a cough;
(c) breathing difficulties.

Notification

(2) A private operator or air carrier must notify every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may not be permitted to board the aircraft if

(a) they exhibit a fever and a cough or a fever and breathing difficulties, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their symptoms are not related to COVID-19;
(b) they have, or suspect that they have, COVID-19;
(c) they have been denied permission to board an aircraft in the previous 14 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19; or
(d) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, they are the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.

Confirmation

(3) Every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates must confirm to the private operator or air carrier that none of the following situations apply to them:

(a) the person has, or suspects that they have, COVID-19;
(b) the person has been denied permission to board an aircraft in the previous 14 days for a medical reason related to COVID-19;
(c) in the case of a flight departing in Canada, the person is the subject of a mandatory quarantine order as a result of recent travel or as a result of a local or provincial public health order.

False declaration — obligation of private operator or air carrier

(4) The private operator or air carrier must advise every person that they may be liable to a monetary penalty if they provide answers, with respect to the health check or a confirmation, that they know to be false or misleading.

False declaration — obligations of person

(5) A person who, under subsections (1) and (3), is subjected to a health check and is required to provide a confirmation must

(a) answer all questions; and
(b) not provide answers or a confirmation that they know to be false or misleading.

Exception

(6) A competent adult may answer all questions and provide a confirmation on behalf of a person who is not a competent adult and who, under subsections (1) and (3), is subjected to a health check and is required to give a confirmation.

Observations — private operator or air carrier

(7) During the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates, the private operator or air carrier must observe whether any person boarding the aircraft is exhibiting any symptoms referred to in subsection (1).

Prohibition

9 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if

(a) the person's answers to the health check questions indicate that they exhibit
- (i) a fever and cough, or
- (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
(b) the private operator or air carrier observes that, as the person is boarding, they exhibit
- (i) a fever and cough, or
- (ii) a fever and breathing difficulties;
(c) the person's confirmation under subsection 8(3) indicates that one of the situations described in paragraphs 8(3)(a), (b) or (c) applies to that person; or
(d) the person is a competent adult and refuses to answer any of the questions asked of them under subsection 8(1) or to give the confirmation under subsection 8(3).

Period of 14 days

10 A person who is not permitted to board an aircraft under section 9 is not permitted to board another aircraft for a period of 14 days after the refusal, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that any symptoms referred to in subsection 8(1) that they are exhibiting are not related to COVID-19.

COVID-19 Molecular Test — Flights to Canada

Application

10.1 (1) Sections 10.2 to 10.7 apply to a private operator or air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country and to every person boarding an aircraft for such a flight.

Non-application

(2) Sections 10.2 to 10.7 do not apply to persons who are not required under an order made under section 58 of the Quarantine Act to provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.

Notification

10.2 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person may not be permitted to board the aircraft if they are unable to provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test.

Result

10.3 Before boarding an aircraft for a flight, every person must provide to the private operator or air carrier operating the flight evidence that they received either

(a) a negative result for a COVID-19 molecular test that was performed on a specimen that was collected no more than 72 hours before the aircraft's initial scheduled departure time; or
(b) a positive result for such a test that was performed on a specimen that was collected at least 14 days and no more than 90 days before the aircraft's initial scheduled departure time.

Evidence — elements

10.4 Evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test must include

(a) the person's name and date of birth;
(b) the name and civic address of the laboratory that administered the test;
(c) the date the specimen was collected and the test method used; and
(d) the test result.

False or misleading evidence

10.5 A person must not provide evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test that they know to be false or misleading.

Notice to Minister

10.6 A private operator or air carrier that has reason to believe that a person has provided evidence of a result for a COVID-19 molecular test that is likely to be false or misleading must notify the Minister as soon as feasible of the person's name and contact information and the date and number of the person's flight.

Prohibition

10.7 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if the person does not provide evidence that they received a result for a COVID-19 molecular test in accordance with the requirements set out in section 10.3.

Temperature Screening — Flights to Canada

Application

11 (1) Sections 12 to 19 apply to an air carrier operating a flight to Canada departing from any other country and to every person boarding an aircraft for such a flight.

Non-application

(2) Sections 12 to 19 do not apply to either of the following persons:

(a) a child who is less than two years of age;
(b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Non-application — crew member

(3) Sections 12 to 15 do not apply to a crew member who underwent a temperature screening under section 22 for the duration of the shift during which the temperature screening was conducted.

Requirement

12 (1) Subject to subsection 19(2), an air carrier must conduct a temperature screening of every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates. The screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.

Second screening

(2) The air carrier must conduct a second temperature screening if the first temperature screening indicates that the person has an elevated temperature. The second temperature screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.

Notification

13 (1) An air carrier must notify every person boarding an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 12(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Confirmation

(2) Before boarding an aircraft for a flight, every person must confirm to the air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 12(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Prohibition — elevated temperature

14 (1) If the temperature screening conducted under subsection 12(2) indicates that the person has an elevated temperature, the air carrier must

(a) not permit the person to board the aircraft; and
(b) notify the person that they are not permitted to board another aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days after the refusal, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Prohibition — refusal

(2) If a person refuses to be subjected to a temperature screening, the air carrier must not permit the person to board the aircraft.

Period of 14 days

15 A person who is not permitted to board an aircraft under section 14 is not permitted to board another aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days after the refusal, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Requirement — equipment

16 An air carrier must calibrate and maintain the equipment that it uses to conduct temperature screenings under subsection 12(2) to ensure that the equipment is in proper operating condition.

Requirement — training

17 An air carrier must ensure that the person using the equipment to conduct temperature screenings under subsection 12(2) has been trained to operate that equipment and interpret the data that it produces.

Record keeping — equipment

18 (1) An air carrier must keep a record of the following information in respect of each flight it operates:

(a) the number of persons who were not permitted to board the aircraft under paragraph 14(1)(a);
(b) the date and flight number;
(c) the make and model of the equipment that the air carrier used to conduct the temperature screenings under subsection 12(2);
(d) the date and time that that equipment was last calibrated and last maintained, as well as the name of the person who performed the calibration or maintenance; and
(e) the results of the last calibration and the activities performed during the last maintenance of that equipment, including any corrective measures taken.

Record keeping — training

(2) An air carrier must keep a record of the name of every person who has received training under section 17, as well as the contents of the training.

Retention period

(3) The air carrier must

(a) retain the records referred to in subsection (1) for a period of at least 90 days after the day of the flight; and
(b) retain the records referred to in subsection (2) for a period of at least 90 days after the day on which the person received the training.

Ministerial request

(4) The air carrier must make the records referred to in subsections (1) and (2) available to the Minister on request.

Definition of authorized person

19 (1) For the purposes of this section, authorized person means a person authorized by a competent authority to conduct temperature screenings at an aerodrome located outside of Canada.

Exception

(2) An air carrier may rely on an authorized person to conduct the temperature screening under subsection 12(1), in which case subsection 12(2) and sections 13, 14, and 16 to 18 do not apply to that air carrier.

Notification

(3) The air carrier must notify every person boarding the aircraft for the flight that they are not permitted to board an aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Period of 14 days

(4) If the temperature screening indicates that a person has an elevated temperature, that person is not permitted to board an aircraft for a flight to Canada for a period of 14 days after the temperature screening, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Equipment

(5) The air carrier must ensure that the equipment used to conduct those temperature screenings is calibrated and maintained so that the equipment is in proper operating condition.

Temperature Screening — Aerodromes in Canada

Definition of screening authority

20 (1) For the purposes of this section and sections 21 to 31, screening authority has the same meaning as in section 3 of the Canadian Aviation Security Regulations, 2012.

Application

(2) Sections 21 to 31 apply to all of the following persons:

(a) a person entering a restricted area within an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1 from a non-restricted area;
(b) a person undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1;
(c) the operator of an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1;
(d) a screening authority at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1;
(e) an air carrier operating a flight departing from an air terminal building at an aerodrome listed in Schedule 1.

Non-application

(3) Sections 21 to 31 do not apply to any of the following persons:

(a) a child who is less than two years of age;
(b) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19;
(c) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
(d) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency.

Requirement

21 A person entering a restricted area within an air terminal building from a non-restricted area within the air terminal building must do so at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint.

Requirement — temperature screening

22 (1) Subject to subsection (3), a screening authority must conduct a temperature screening of every person who presents themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint within an air terminal building for the purpose of entering a restricted area from a non-restricted area and of every person undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building. The screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.

Second screening

(2) Following a rest period of 10 minutes, the screening authority must conduct a second temperature screening if the first temperature screening indicates that the person has an elevated temperature. The second temperature screening must be conducted using equipment that complies with the standards and conducted according to the procedures set out in the standards.

Exception

(3) If the temperature screening of a person, other than a passenger, who presents themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint within an air terminal building for the purpose of entering a restricted area from a non-restricted area, or of a person who is undergoing a screening at a non-passenger screening checkpoint outside an air terminal building, indicates that the person does not have an elevated temperature, the screening authority is not required to conduct any further temperature screenings of that person for the duration of the day during which the temperature screening was conducted.

Notification — consequence of elevated temperature

23 (1) An air carrier must notify every person, other than a crew member, who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the air carrier operates that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada and that they must not enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 22(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Confirmation — consequence of elevated temperature

(2) Before passing beyond a passenger screening checkpoint to board an aircraft for a flight, every person other than a crew member must confirm to the air carrier operating the flight that they understand that they may not be permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada and that they must not enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days if the temperature screening conducted under subsection 22(2) indicates that they have an elevated temperature, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Prohibition — elevated temperature

24 (1) If the temperature screening conducted under subsection 22(2) indicates that the person has an elevated temperature, the screening authority must

(a) deny the person entry to the restricted area; and
(b) notify the person that they are not permitted to board an aircraft for a flight originating in Canada or enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Prohibition — refusal

(2) If a person refuses to be subjected to a temperature screening, the screening authority must deny them entry to the restricted area.

Period of 14 days

25 A person who is denied entry to the restricted area under section 24 is not permitted to enter a restricted area at any aerodrome in Canada for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Denial — person intending to board aircraft

26 (1) If, under section 24, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight, other than a crew member, the screening authority must, for the purpose of paragraph 26(4)(a), notify the air carrier operating the flight that that person has been denied entry to the restricted area and provide the person's name and flight number to the air carrier.

Denial — person not intending to board aircraft

(2) If, under section 24, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a person who does not intend to board an aircraft for a flight, the screening authority must, for the purpose of subsection 26(5), provide the following information to the operator of the aerodrome:

(a) the person's name as it appears on their document of entitlement;
(b) the number or identifier of the person's document of entitlement; and
(c) the reason why the person was denied entry to the restricted area.

Denial — crew member

(3) If, under section 24, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a crew member, the screening authority must provide the information referred to in subsection (2) to the air carrier for the purpose of allowing the air carrier to assign a replacement crew member, if necessary.

Denial — air carrier requirements

(4) An air carrier that has been notified under subsection (1) must

(a) ensure that the person is directed to a location where they can retrieve their checked baggage, if applicable; and
(b) if the person is escorted to a location where they can retrieve their checked baggage, ensure that the escort wears a face mask and maintains a distance of at least two metres between themselves and the person.

Denial — aerodrome operator requirement

(5) The operator of an aerodrome that has been notified under subsection (2) must suspend the person's restricted area entry privileges for a period of 14 days after the person was denied entry to the restricted area, unless the person provides a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Prohibition — restricted area

(6) If, under section 24, a screening authority denies entry to a restricted area to a crew member or to a person who does not intend to board an aircraft for a flight, the crew member or that person must not present themselves at a passenger screening checkpoint or non-passenger screening checkpoint at any aerodrome for the purpose of entering a restricted area for a period of 14 days after the denial, unless they provide a medical certificate certifying that their elevated temperature is not related to COVID-19.

Requirement — equipment

27 A screening authority must ensure that the equipment that it uses to conduct temperature screenings under section 22 is calibrated and maintained so that the equipment is in proper operating condition.

Requirement — training

28 A screening authority must ensure that the person using the equipment to conduct temperature screenings under section 22 has been trained to operate that equipment and interpret the data that it produces.

Record keeping — equipment

29 (1) A screening authority must keep a record of the following information with respect to any temperature screening it conducts:

(a) the number of persons who are denied entry under paragraph 24(1)(a) at a passenger screening checkpoint;
(b) the number of persons who are denied entry under paragraph 24(1)(a) at a non-passenger screening checkpoint;
(c) the flight number of any person who is denied entry under paragraph 24(1)(a) at a passenger screening checkpoint and the date on which the person was denied entry;
(d) the make and model of the equipment that the screening authority uses to conduct the temperature screenings under section 22;
(e) the date and time when that equipment was calibrated and maintained, as well as the name of the person who performed the calibration or maintenance; and
(f) the results of the calibration and the activities performed during the maintenance of that equipment, including any corrective measures taken.

Record keeping — training

(2) The screening authority must keep a record of the name of every person who has received training under section 28, as well as the contents of the training.

Retention

(3) The screening authority must

(a) retain the records referred to in subsection (1) for a period of at least 90 days after the day on which the record was created; and
(b) retain the records referred to in subsection (2) in accordance with any record retention requirements under the Privacy Act.

Ministerial request

(4) The screening authority must make the records referred to in subsections (1) and (2) available to the Minister on request.

Temperature screening facilities

30 The operator of an aerodrome must make facilities available for temperature screening that are accessible without having to enter a restricted area.

Requirement — air carrier representative

31 An air carrier must ensure that the screening authority at the aerodrome has been provided with the name and telephone number of the on-duty representative of the air carrier for the purpose of facilitating the return of checked baggage to persons who are denied entry to a restricted area under section 24.

Face Masks

Non-application

32 (1) Sections 33 to 38 do not apply to any of the following persons:

(a) a child who is less than two years of age;
(b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
(c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
(d) a person who is unconscious;
(e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
(f) a crew member;
(g) a gate agent.

Face mask readily available

(2) An adult responsible for a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age must ensure that a face mask is readily available to the child before boarding an aircraft for a flight.

Wearing of face mask

(3) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under section 35 and complies with any instructions given by a gate agent under section 36 if the child

(a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
(b) is at least six years of age.

Notification

33 A private operator or air carrier must notify every person who intends to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates that the person must

(a) be in possession of a face mask before boarding;
(b) wear the face mask at all times during the boarding process, during the flight and from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building; and
(c) comply with any instructions given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.

Obligation to possess face mask

34 Every person who is at least six years of age must be in possession of a face mask before boarding an aircraft for a flight.

Wearing of face mask — persons

35 (1) Subject to subsections (2) to (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a person to wear a face mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.

Exceptions — person

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply

(a) when the safety of the person could be endangered by wearing a face mask;
(b) when the person is drinking or eating, unless a crew member instructs the person to wear a face mask;
(c) when the person is taking oral medications;
(d) when a gate agent or a crew member authorizes the removal of the face mask to address unforeseen circumstances or the person's special needs; or
(e) when a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member authorizes the removal of the face mask to verify the person's identity.

Exceptions — flight deck

(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to any of the following persons when they are on the flight deck:

(a) a Department of Transport air carrier inspector;
(b) an inspector of the civil aviation authority of the state where the aircraft is registered;
(c) an employee of the private operator or air carrier who is not a crew member and who is performing their duties;
(d) a pilot, flight engineer or flight attendant employed by a wholly owned subsidiary or a code share partner of the air carrier;
(e) a person who has expertise related to the aircraft, its equipment or its crew members and who is required to be on the flight deck to provide a service to the private operator or air carrier.

Compliance

36 A person must comply with any instructions given by a gate agent, a member of the aerodrome security personnel or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.

Prohibition — private operator or air carrier

37 A private operator or air carrier must not permit a person to board an aircraft for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates if

(a) the person is not in possession of a face mask; or
(b) the person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a gate agent or a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask.

Refusal to comply

38 (1) If, during a flight that a private operator or air carrier operates, a person refuses to comply with an instruction given by a crew member with respect to wearing a face mask, the private operator or air carrier must

(a) keep a record of
- (i) the date and flight number,
- (ii) the person's name, date of birth and contact information, including the person's home address, telephone number and email address,
- (iii) the person's seat number, and
- (iv) the circumstances related to the refusal to comply; and
(b) inform the Minister as soon as feasible of any record created under paragraph (a).

Retention period

(2) The private operator or air carrier must retain the record referred to in paragraph (1)(a) for a period of at least 12 months after the day of the flight.

Ministerial request

(3) The private operator or air carrier must make the records referred to in paragraph (1)(a) available to the Minister on request.

Wearing of face mask — crew member

39 (1) Subject to subsections (2) to (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a crew member to wear a face mask at all times during the boarding process and during a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.

Exceptions — crew member

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply

(a) when the safety of the crew member could be endangered by wearing a face mask;
(b) when the wearing of a face mask by the crew member could interfere with operational requirements or the safety of the flight; or
(c) when the crew member is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.

Exception — flight deck

(3) Subsection (1) does not apply to a crew member who is a flight crew member when they are on the flight deck.

Wearing of face mask — gate agent

40 (1) Subject to subsections (2) and (3), a private operator or air carrier must require a gate agent to wear a face mask during the boarding process for a flight that the private operator or air carrier operates.

Exceptions

(2) Subsection (1) does not apply

(a) when the safety of the gate agent could be endangered by wearing a face mask; or
(b) when the gate agent is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.

Exception — physical barrier

(3) During the boarding process, subsection (1) does not apply to a gate agent if the gate agent is separated from any other person by a physical barrier that allows the gate agent and the other person to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.

Deplaning

Non-application

41 (1) Section 42 does not apply to any of the following persons:

(a) a child who is less than two years of age;
(b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
(c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
(d) a person who is unconscious;
(e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
(f) a person who is on a flight that originates in Canada and is destined to another country.

Wearing of face mask

(2) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under section 42 if the child

(a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
(b) is at least six years of age.

Wearing of face mask — person

42 A person who is on board an aircraft must wear a face mask at all times from the moment the doors of the aircraft are opened until the person enters the air terminal building, including by a passenger loading bridge.

Screening Authority

Definition of screening authority

43 (1) For the purposes of sections 44 and 47, screening authority means a person responsible for the screening of persons and goods at an aerodrome set out in the schedule to the CATSA Aerodrome Designation Regulations or at any other place designated by the Minister under subsection 6(1.1) of the Canadian Air Transport Security Authority Act.

Non-application

(2) Sections 44 to 47 do not apply to any of the following persons:

(a) a child who is less than two years of age;
(b) a child who is at least two years of age but less than six years of age who is unable to tolerate wearing a face mask;
(c) a person who provides a medical certificate certifying that they are unable to wear a face mask for a medical reason;
(d) a person who is unconscious;
(e) a person who is unable to remove their face mask without assistance;
(f) a member of emergency response provider personnel who is responding to an emergency;
(g) a peace officer who is responding to an emergency.

Wearing of face mask

(3) An adult responsible for a child must ensure that the child wears a face mask when wearing one is required under subsection 44(2) and removes it when required by a screening officer to do so under subsection 44(3) if the child

(a) is at least two years of age but less than six years of age and is able to tolerate wearing a face mask; or
(b) is at least six years of age.

Requirement — passenger screening checkpoint

44 (1) A screening authority must notify a person who is subject to screening at a passenger screening checkpoint that they must wear a face mask at all times during screening.

Wearing of face mask — person

(2) Subject to subsection (3), a person who is the subject of screening referred to in subsection (1) must wear a face mask at all times during screening.

Requirement to remove face mask

(3) A person who is required by a screening officer to remove their face mask during screening must do so.

Wearing of face mask — screening officer

(4) A screening officer must wear a face mask at a passenger screening checkpoint when conducting the screening of a person if, during the screening, the screening officer is two metres or less from the person being screened.

Requirement — non-passenger screening checkpoint

45 (1) A person who presents themselves at a non-passenger screening checkpoint to enter into a restricted area must wear a face mask at all times.

Wearing of face mask — screening officer

(2) Subject to subsection (3), a screening officer must wear a face mask at all times at a non-passenger screening checkpoint.

Exceptions

(3) Subsection (2) does not apply

(a) when the safety of the screening officer could be endangered by wearing a face mask; or
(b) when the screening officer is drinking, eating or taking oral medications.

Exception — physical barrier

46 Sections 44 and 45 do not apply to a person, including a screening officer, if the person is two metres or less from another person and both persons are separated by a physical barrier that allows them to interact and reduces the risk of exposure to COVID-19.

Prohibition — passenger screening checkpoint

47 (1) A screening authority must not permit a person who has been notified to wear a face mask and refuses to do so to pass beyond a passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.

Prohibition — non-passenger screening checkpoint

(2) A screening authority must not permit a person who refuses to wear a face mask to pass beyond a non-passenger screening checkpoint into a restricted area.

Designated Provisions

Designation

48 (1) The provisions of this Interim Order set out in column 1 of Schedule 2 are designated as provisions the contravention of which may be dealt with under and in accordance with the procedure set out in sections 7.7 to 8.2 of the Act.

Maximum amounts

(2) The amounts set out in column 2 of Schedule 2 are the maximum amounts of the penalty payable in respect of a contravention of the designated provisions set out in column 1.

Notice

(3) A notice referred to in subsection 7.7(1) of the Act must be in writing and must specify

(a) the particulars of the alleged contravention;
(b) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent has the option of paying the amount specified in the notice or filing with the Tribunal a request for a review of the alleged contravention or the amount of the penalty;
(c) that payment of the amount specified in the notice will be accepted by the Minister in satisfaction of the amount of the penalty for the alleged contravention and that no further proceedings under Part I of the Act will be taken against the person on whom the notice in respect of that contravention is served or to whom it is sent;
(d) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be provided with an opportunity consistent with procedural fairness and natural justice to present evidence before the Tribunal and make representations in relation to the alleged contravention if the person files a request for a review with the Tribunal; and
(e) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be considered to have committed the contravention set out in the notice if they fail to pay the amount specified in the notice and fail to file a request for a review with the Tribunal within the prescribed period.

Repeal

49 The Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 21, made on February 12, 2021, is repealed.

SCHEDULE 1

(Subsection 20(2))

Aerodromes
Name	ICAO Location Indicator
Calgary International Airport	CYYC
Edmonton International Airport	CYEG
Halifax / Robert L. Stanfield International Airport	CYHZ
Kelowna International Airport	CYLW
Montréal / Pierre Elliott Trudeau International Airport	CYUL
Ottawa / Macdonald-Cartier International Airport	CYOW
Québec / Jean Lesage International Airport	CYQB
Regina International Airport	CYQR
Saskatoon / John G. Diefenbaker International Airport	CYXE
St. John's International Airport	CYYT
Toronto / Billy Bishop Toronto City Airport	CYTZ
Toronto / Lester B. Pearson International Airport	CYYZ
Vancouver International Airport	CYVR
Victoria International Airport	CYYJ
Winnipeg / James Armstrong Richardson International Airport	CYWG

SCHEDULE 2

(Subsections 48(1) and (2))

Designated Provisions
Column 1 Designated Provision	Column 2 Maximum Amount of Penalty ($)
Column 1 Designated Provision	Individual	Corporation
Subsection 2(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 2(2)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 2(3)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 3(1)	5,000
Subsection 3(2)	5,000
Section 4	5,000	25,000
Section 5	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(2)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(3)	5,000
Subsection 8(4)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 8(5)	5,000
Subsection 8(7)	5,000	25,000
Section 9	5,000	25,000
Section 10	5,000
Section 10.2	5,000	25,000
Section 10.3	5,000
Section 10.5	5,000
Section 10.6	5,000	25,000
Section 10.7	5,000	25,000
Subsection 12(1)		25,000
Subsection 12(2)		25,000
Subsection 13(1)		25,000
Subsection 13(2)	5,000
Subsection 14(1)		25,000
Subsection 14(2)		25,000
Section 15	5,000
Section 16		25,000
Section 17		25,000
Subsection 18(1)		25,000
Subsection 18(2)		25,000
Subsection 18(3)		25,000
Subsection 18(4)		25,000
Subsection 19(3)		25,000
Subsection 19(4)	5,000
Subsection 19(5)		25,000
Section 21	5,000
Subsection 22(1)		25,000
Subsection 22(2)		25,000
Subsection 23(1)		25,000
Subsection 23(2)	5,000
Subsection 24(1)		25,000
Subsection 24(2)		25,000
Section 25	5,000
Subsection 26(1)		25,000
Subsection 26(2)		25,000
Subsection 26(3)		25,000
Subsection 26(4)		25,000
Subsection 26(5)		25,000
Subsection 26(6)	5,000
Section 27		25,000
Section 28		25,000
Subsection 29(1)		25,000
Subsection 29(2)		25,000
Subsection 29(3)		25,000
Subsection 29(4)		25,000
Section 30		25,000
Section 31		25,000
Subsection 32(2)	5,000
Subsection 32(3)	5,000
Section 33	5,000	25,000
Section 34	5,000
Subsection 35(1)	5,000	25,000
Section 36	5,000
Section 37	5,000	25,000
Subsection 38(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 38(2)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 38(3)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 39(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 40(1)	5,000	25,000
Subsection 41(2)	5,000
Section 42	5,000
Subsection 43(3)	5,000
Subsection 44(1)		25,000
Subsection 44(2)	5,000
Subsection 44(3)	5,000
Subsection 44(4)	5,000
Subsection 45(1)	5,000
Subsection 45(2)	5,000
Subsection 47(1)		25,000
Subsection 47(2)		25,000

DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT

AERONAUTICS ACT

Interim Order Respecting Certain Training Requirements (B-737-8 and Other Aircraft), No. 3

Whereas the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Training Requirements (B-737-8 and Other Aircraft), No. 3 is required to deal with a significant risk, direct or indirect, to aviation safety or the safety of the public;

Whereas the provisions of the annexed Order may be contained in a regulation made pursuant to section 4.9^{footnote b}, paragraphs 7.6(1)(a)^{footnote c} and (b)^{footnote d} and section 7.7^{footnote e} of the Aeronautics Act^{footnote f};

Therefore, the Minister of Transport, pursuant to subsection 6.41(1)^{footnote g} of the Aeronautics Act ^{footnote f}, makes the annexed Interim Order Respecting Certain Training Requirements (B-737-8 and Other Aircraft), No. 3.

Ottawa, February 15, 2021

Omar Alghabra
Minister of Transport

Interim Order Respecting Certain Training Requirements (B-737-8 and Other Aircraft), No. 3

Definitions and Interpretation

Definitions

1 (1) The following definitions apply in this Interim Order.

B-737-8: means a model 737-8 aircraft built by Boeing in accordance with type certificate A-146. (B-737-8)
Regulations: means the Canadian Aviation Regulations. (Règlement)

Interpretation

(2) Unless the context requires otherwise, all other words and expressions used in this Interim Order have the same meaning as in the Regulations.

Conflict

(3) In the event of a conflict between this Interim Order and the Regulations, this Interim Order prevails.

Application

Persons

2 This Interim Order applies to each of the following persons:

(a) a private operator;
(b) an air operator that is the holder of an air operator certificate issued under Subpart 5 of Part VII of the Regulations; and
(c) a flight crew member who has been assigned duties with respect to an aircraft operated by an operator referred to in paragraph (a) or (b), or any other person acting in that capacity.

Training Requirements and Prohibition

Operational evaluation report — training program

3 An air operator that operates a B-737-8 must ensure that

(a) the training requirements set out in sections 9.2.1.1, 9.2.1.5, 9.2.2.4, 9.2.2.5, 9.2.2.6, 9.2.2.7, 9.6 and 10.5 and Appendix 7 of the Operational Evaluation Report — Boeing 737, Revision 1, published by the Department of Transport on December 17, 2020, are incorporated into the air operator's training program required by section 705.124 of the Regulations; and
(b) the amended training program is submitted to the Minister for the approval referred to in paragraph 705.124(1)(b) of the Regulations.

Prohibition — B-737-8

4 Despite paragraph 705.106(3)(a) of the Regulations, an air operator must not permit a person to act and a person must not act as the pilot-in-command or second-in-command on board a B-737-8 for the operation of a training, ferry or positioning flight unless the person has successfully completed training in respect of the requirements referred to in paragraph 3(a) of this Interim Order that have been incorporated into the air operator's training program.

Notice from Minister

Training program

5 (1) If the Minister determines that a private operator's training program required by section 604.166 of the Regulations or an air operator's training program required by section 705.124 of the Regulations does not contain the competencies required for the flight crew to perform their assigned duties, the Minister must notify the private operator or the air operator of the corrective actions that the private operator or the air operator is required to implement into its training program, and

(a) in the case of a private operator, the date by which the private operator must implement the corrective actions into its training program; or
(b) in the case of an air operator, the date by which the air operator must submit its amended training program to the Minister for approval under paragraph 705.124(1)(b) of the Regulations.

Implementation or submission to Minister

(2) A private operator must implement the corrective actions by the date specified by the Minister under paragraph (1)(a), and an air operator must submit its amended training program to the Minister by the date specified by the Minister under paragraph (1)(b).

Designated Provisions

Designation

6 (1) The provisions of this Interim Order set out in column 1 of the schedule are designated as provisions the contravention of which may be dealt with in accordance with the procedure set out in sections 7.7 to 8.2 of the Act.

Maximum amounts

(2) The amounts set out in column 2 of the schedule are the maximum amounts of the penalty payable in respect of a contravention of the designated provision set out in column 1.

Notice

(3) A notice referred to in subsection 7.7(1) of the Act must be in writing and must specify

(a) the particulars of the alleged contravention;
(b) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent has the option of paying the amount specified in the notice or filing with the Tribunal a request for a review of the alleged contravention or the amount of the penalty;
(c) that payment of the amount specified in the notice will be accepted by the Minister in satisfaction of the amount of the penalty for the alleged contravention and that no further proceedings under Part I of the Act will be taken against the person on whom the notice in respect of that contravention is served or to whom it is sent;
(d) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be provided with an opportunity consistent with procedural fairness and natural justice to present evidence before the Tribunal and make representations in relation to the alleged contravention if the person files a request for a review with the Tribunal; and
(e) that the person on whom the notice is served or to whom it is sent will be considered to have committed the contravention set out in the notice if they fail to pay the amount specified in the notice and fail to file a request for a review with the Tribunal within the prescribed period.

SCHEDULE

(Subsections 6(1) and (2))

Designated Provisions
Column 1 Designated Provision	Column 2 Maximum Amount of Penalty ($)
Column 1 Designated Provision	Individual	Corporation
Paragraph 3‍(a)	3,000	15,000
Paragraph 3‍(b)	3,000	15,000
Section 4	5,000	25,000
Subsection 5‍(2)	3,000	15,000

ENVIRONMENT AND CLIMATE CHANGE CANADA

SPECIES AT RISK ACT

Description of Red-headed Woodpecker critical habitat in the Long Point National Wildlife Area and Prince Edward Point National Wildlife Area

The Red-headed Woodpecker (Melanerpes erythrocephalus) is a medium-sized woodpecker that is listed as threatened on Schedule 1 of the Species at Risk Act. In Canada, the Red-headed Woodpecker occurs in southern Saskatchewan, Manitoba, Ontario, and Quebec. It inhabits a variety of habitats including oak and beech forests, grasslands, forest edges, orchards, pastures, riparian forests, roadsides, urban parks, golf courses, cemeteries, beaver ponds and burns.

The latest recovery strategy for the Red-headed Woodpecker identifies the critical habitat for the species in a number of areas, including within federally protected areas.

Notice is hereby given that, pursuant to subsection 58(2) of the Species at Risk Act, subsection 58(1) of that Act applies, 90 days after this publication, to the critical habitat of the Red-headed Woodpecker identified in the recovery strategy for that species that is included on the Species at Risk Public Registry, that is found within the Long Point National Wildlife Area and Prince Edward Point National Wildlife Area described in Schedule 1 of the Wildlife Area Regulations made pursuant to the Canada Wildlife Act.

Interested parties are invited to contact Environment and Climate Change Canada by email at ec.protectionep-sarprotection.ec@canada.ca to request clarifications regarding the location, biophysical attributes and protection of this species' critical habitat. However, some details may be withheld to protect the species and its critical habitat.

March 6, 2021

Sarah Wren
Director
Species at Risk Act Implementation
Canadian Wildlife Service

INNOVATION, SCIENCE AND ECONOMIC DEVELOPMENT CANADA

RADIOCOMMUNICATION ACT
TELECOMMUNICATIONS ACT

Notice No. SMSE-002-21 — Release of RSP-102, issue 1

Notice is hereby given that Innovation, Science and Economic Development Canada (ISED) has published the following procedure:

Radio Standards Procedure RSP-102, issue 1, Special Authorization Procedure for Terminal, Radio, Broadcasting and Interference-Causing Equipment to be Certified, Registered or Deemed in Compliance with Technical Equipment Standards, which sets out the procedure for assessing special authorization requests that allow terminal, radio, broadcasting or interference-causing equipment to deviate from one or more of the specific requirements found in an ISED technical equipment standard.

This document will come into force upon its publication on the official publications section of the Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website.

General information

The Radio Standards Procedures list will be amended accordingly.

Submitting comments

Comments and suggestions for improving these procedures may be submitted online using the General Inquiry form.

Obtaining copies

Copies of this notice and of documents referred to herein are available electronically on the Spectrum Management and Telecommunications website.

Official versions of notices can be viewed on the Canada Gazette website.

February 11, 2021

Martin Proulx
Director General
Engineering, Planning and Standards Branch

OFFICE OF THE SUPERINTENDENT OF FINANCIAL INSTITUTIONS

BANK ACT

Schedules I, II and III

Notice is hereby given, pursuant to subsections 14(3) and 14.1(3) of the Bank Act, that Schedules I, II and III, as amended, were as shown below as at December 31, 2020.

SCHEDULE I

(Section 14)

As at December 31, 2020
Name of Bank	Head Office
ADS Canadian Bank	Ontario
B2B Bank	Ontario
Bank of Montreal	Quebec
Bank of Nova Scotia (The)	Nova Scotia
Bridgewater Bank	Alberta
Caisse populaire acadienne ltée	New Brunswick
Canadian Imperial Bank of Commerce	Ontario
Canadian Tire Bank	Ontario
Canadian Western Bank	Alberta
Coast Capital Savings Federal Credit Union	British Columbia
Concentra Bank	Saskatchewan
CS Alterna Bank	Ontario
Digital Commerce Bank	Alberta
Duo Bank of Canada	Ontario
Equitable Bank	Ontario
Exchange Bank of Canada	Ontario
First Nations Bank of Canada	Saskatchewan
General Bank of Canada	Alberta
Haventree Bank	Ontario
Home Bank	Ontario
HomeEquity Bank	Ontario
Laurentian Bank of Canada	Quebec
Manulife Bank of Canada	Ontario
Motus Bank	Ontario
National Bank of Canada	Quebec
Peoples Bank of Canada	British Columbia
President's Choice Bank	Ontario
RFA Bank of Canada	Ontario
Rogers Bank	Ontario
Royal Bank of Canada	Quebec
Tangerine Bank	Ontario
Toronto-Dominion Bank (The)	Ontario
Vancity Community Investment Bank	British Columbia
VersaBank	Ontario
Wealth One Bank of Canada	Ontario

SCHEDULE II

(Section 14)

As at December 31, 2020
Name of Bank	Head Office
Amex Bank of Canada	Ontario
Bank of China (Canada)	Ontario
Bank One Canada	Ontario
Cidel Bank Canada	Ontario
Citco Bank Canada	Ontario
Citibank Canada	Ontario
CTBC Bank Corp. (Canada)	British Columbia
Habib Canadian Bank	Ontario
HSBC Bank Canada	British Columbia
ICICI Bank Canada	Ontario
Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (Canada)	Ontario
J.P. Morgan Bank Canada	Ontario
KEB Hana Bank Canada	Ontario
SBI Canada Bank	Ontario
Shinhan Bank Canada	Ontario
Société Générale (Canada)	Quebec
UBS Bank (Canada)	Ontario

SCHEDULE III

(Section 14.1)

As at December 31, 2020
Name of Authorized Foreign Bank (FB)	Name under which FB is permitted to carry on business in Canada	Type of Foreign Bank Branch (FBB) ^{table 6 note *}	Principal Office
Bank of America, National Association	Bank of America, National Association	Full-service	Ontario
Bank of China Limited	Bank of China, Toronto Branch	Full-service	Ontario
Bank of New York Mellon (The)	Bank of New York Mellon (The)	Full-service	Ontario
Barclays Bank PLC	Barclays Bank PLC, Canada Branch	Full-service	Ontario
BNP Paribas	BNP Paribas	Full-service	Quebec
Capital One Bank (USA), N.A.	Capital One Bank (Canada Branch)	Full-service	Ontario
China Construction Bank	China Construction Bank Toronto Branch	Full-service	Ontario
Citibank, N.A.	Citibank, N.A.	Full-service	Ontario
Comerica Bank	Comerica Bank	Full-service	Ontario
Coöperatieve Rabobank U.A.	Rabobank Canada	Full-service	Ontario
Crédit Agricole Corporate and Investment Bank	Crédit Agricole Corporate and Investment Bank (Canada Branch)	Lending	Quebec
Credit Suisse AG	Credit Suisse AG, Toronto Branch	Lending	Ontario
Deutsche Bank AG	Deutsche Bank AG	Full-service	Ontario
Fifth Third Bank, National Association	Fifth Third Bank, National Association	Full-service	Ontario
First Commercial Bank	First Commercial Bank	Full-service	British Columbia
JPMorgan Chase Bank, National Association	JPMorgan Chase Bank, National Association	Full-service	Ontario
M&T Bank	M&T Bank	Full-service	Ontario
Maple Bank GmbH	Maple Bank	Full-service	Ontario
Mega International Commercial Bank Co., Ltd.	Mega International Commercial Bank Co., Ltd.	Full-service	Ontario
Mizuho Bank, Ltd.	Mizuho Bank, Ltd., Canada Branch	Full-service	Ontario
MUFG Bank, Ltd.	MUFG Bank, Ltd., Canada Branch	Full-service	Ontario
Natixis	Natixis Canada Branch	Lending	Quebec
Northern Trust Company (The)	Northern Trust Company, Canada Branch (The)	Full-service	Ontario
PNC Bank, National Association	PNC Bank Canada Branch	Full-service	Ontario
Silicon Valley Bank	Silicon Valley Bank	Lending	Ontario
Société Générale	Société Générale (Canada Branch)	Full-service	Quebec
State Street Bank and Trust Company	State Street	Full-service	Ontario
Sumitomo Mitsui Banking Corporation	Sumitomo Mitsui Banking Corporation, Canada Branch	Full-service	Ontario
U.S. Bank National Association	U.S. Bank National Association	Full-service	Ontario
UBS AG	UBS AG Canada Branch	Full-service	Ontario
United Overseas Bank Limited	United Overseas Bank Limited	Full-service	British Columbia
Wells Fargo Bank, National Association	Wells Fargo Bank, National Association, Canadian Branch	Full-service	Ontario
Table 6 note(s) Table 6 note * An FBB, whose order is subject to the restrictions and requirements referred to in subsection 524(2) of the Bank Act, is referred to as a "lending" branch. Return to table 6 note * referrer

February 22, 2021

Jeremy Rudin
Superintendent of Financial Institutions

PRIVY COUNCIL OFFICE

Appointment opportunities

We know that our country is stronger — and our government more effective — when decision-makers reflect Canada's diversity. The Government of Canada has implemented an appointment process that is transparent and merit-based, strives for gender parity, and ensures that Indigenous peoples and minority groups are properly represented in positions of leadership. We continue to search for Canadians who reflect the values that we all embrace: inclusion, honesty, fiscal prudence, and generosity of spirit. Together, we will build a government as diverse as Canada.

We are equally committed to providing a healthy workplace that supports one's dignity, self-esteem and the ability to work to one's full potential. With this in mind, all appointees will be expected to take steps to promote and maintain a healthy, respectful and harassment-free work environment.

The Government of Canada is currently seeking applications from diverse and talented Canadians from across the country who are interested in the following positions.

Current opportunities

The following opportunities for appointments to Governor in Council positions are currently open for applications. Every opportunity is open for a minimum of two weeks from the date of posting on the Governor in Council appointments website.

Governor in Council appointment opportunities
Position	Organization	Closing date
Member	Atlantic Pilotage Authority Canada
Commissioner	British Columbia Treaty Commission
Member	Buffalo and Fort Erie Public Bridge Authority
Director	Business Development Bank of Canada
President and Chief Executive Officer	Business Development Bank of Canada
President and Chief Executive Officer	Canada Development Investment Corporation
Commissioner for Employers	Canada Employment Insurance Commission
Director	Canada Infrastructure Bank
President and Chief Executive Officer	Canada Lands Company Limited
Director	Canada Mortgage and Housing Corporation
President	Canada Mortgage and Housing Corporation
Member of the Board of Directors	Canada Post
President	Canadian Commercial Corporation
Member	Canadian Cultural Property Export Review Board
Director	Canadian Energy Regulator
Federal Housing Advocate	Canadian Human Rights Commission
Member	Canadian Human Rights Tribunal
Member	Canadian Institutes of Health Research
Chairperson	Canadian Museum of History
Director	Canadian Museum of History
Chairperson	Canadian Transportation Agency
Temporary Member	Canadian Transportation Agency
Director	Farm Credit Canada
Chairperson	Federal Public Sector Labour Relations and Employment Board
Vice-Chairperson	Federal Public Sector Labour Relations and Employment Board
Director	Freshwater Fish Marketing Corporation
Member	Great Lakes Pilotage Authority Canada
Director (Federal)	Hamilton-Oshawa Port Authority
Member, Yukon	Historic Sites and Monuments Board of Canada
Assistant Deputy Chairperson	Immigration and Refugee Board of Canada
Member (appointment to roster)	International Trade and International Investment Dispute Settlement Bodies
Chairperson	Laurentian Pilotage Authority Canada
Director	Marine Atlantic Inc.
Chairperson	Military Police Complaints Commission of Canada
Member	Military Police Complaints Commission of Canada
Member	National Arts Centre Corporation
Member	National Seniors Council
Member	Natural Sciences and Engineering Research Council of Canada
Commissioner and Director	Office of the Commissioner of Indigenous Languages
Superintendent	Office of the Superintendent of Financial Institutions Canada
Member	Payments in Lieu of Taxes Dispute Advisory Panel
Director	Public Sector Pension Investment Board
Commissioner	Roosevelt Campobello International Park Commission
Member	Social Sciences and Humanities Research Council of Canada
Chairperson	Standards Council of Canada
Registrar	Supreme Court of Canada
Member	Telefilm Canada
Director (Federal)	Toronto Port Authority
Chairperson and Member	Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada
Member	Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada
Vice-Chairperson	Transportation Appeal Tribunal of Canada
Director (Federal)	Trois-Rivières Port Authority

Footnotes

Footnote a

S.C. 2004, c. 15, s. 5

Return to footnote a referrer

Footnote b

S.C. 2014, c. 39, s. 144

Return to footnote b referrer

Footnote c

S.C. 2015, c. 20, s. 12

Return to footnote c referrer

Footnote d

S.C. 2004, c. 15, s. 18

Return to footnote d referrer

Footnote e

S.C. 2001, c. 29, s. 39

Return to footnote e referrer

Footnote f

R.S., c. A-2

Return to footnote f referrer

Footnote g

S.C. 2004, c. 15, s. 11(1)

Return to footnote g referrer

Footnote 1

Conclusions for the substance bearing CAS RN 68955-53-3 are provided in the document entitled Substances Identified as Being of Low Concern using the Ecological Risk Classification of Organic Substances and the Threshold of Toxicological Concern (TTC)-based Approach for Certain Substances Screening Assessment.

Return to footnote 1 referrer

Footnote 2

Conclusions for substances bearing CAS RNs 112-90-3, 80939-62-4 and 90367-27-4 are provided in the Rapid Screening of Substances with Limited General Population Exposure Screening Assessment.

Return to footnote 2 referrer

Footnote 3

The substances bearing CAS RNs 108-91-8 and 58713-21-6 have been moved from the Aliphatic Amines Group into the Sodium Cyclamate and Cyclohexylamine Group (formerly known as Sulfamic Acid, Cyclohexyl-, Monosodium Salt) and the Hexamethylenetriamine Group, respectively.

Return to footnote 3 referrer

Footnote 4

The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS RN) is the property of the American Chemical Society, and any use or redistribution, except as required in supporting regulatory requirements and/or for reports to the Government of Canada when the information and the reports are required by law or administrative policy, is not permitted without the prior written permission of the American Chemical Society.

Return to footnote 4 referrer

Footnote 5

The conclusion for the substance bearing CAS RN 80584-90-3 is provided in the draft Screening Assessment – Substances Identified as Being of Low Concern Using the Ecological Risk Classification of Organic Substances and the Threshold of Toxicological Concern (TTC)-based Approach for Certain Substances.

Return to footnote 5 referrer

Footnote 6

The conclusion for the substance bearing CAS RN 21564-17-0 is provided in the draft Rapid Screening of Substances with Limited General Population Exposure.

Return to footnote 6 referrer

Footnote 7

The Chemical Abstracts Service Registry Number (CAS RN) is the property of the American Chemical Society, and any use or redistribution, except as required in supporting regulatory requirements and/or for reports to the Government of Canada when the information and the reports are required by law or administrative policy, is not permitted without the prior, written permission of the American Chemical Society.

Return to footnote 7 referrer

Footnote 8

For the definition of "therapeutically active component," please refer to the Regulations Amending the Food and Drug Regulations (Improving Access to Generics).

Return to footnote 8 referrer

Canada Gazette, Part I, Volume 155, Number 10: GOVERNMENT NOTICES

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Publication after screening assessment of 13 substances in the Aliphatic Amines Group specified on the Domestic Substances List (paragraphs 68(b) and (c) or subsection 77(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)

Public comment period

ANNEX

Summary of the draft screening assessment of the Aliphatic Amines Group

Table a1 note(s)

Proposed overall conclusion

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Publication after screening assessment of 15 substances in the Benzotriazoles and Benzothiazoles Group specified on the Domestic Substances List (paragraphs 68(b) and (c) or subsection 77(1) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)

Public comment period

ANNEX

Summary of the draft screening assessment of the Benzotriazoles and Benzothiazoles Group

Table a2 note(s)

Proposed overall conclusion

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Public comment period

ANNEX

Summary of the draft screening assessment of the Hexamethylenetetramines Group

Table b1 note(s)

Proposed overall conclusion

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Final guidelines for Canadian drinking water quality for aluminum

ANNEX

Guideline value

Other considerations

Executive summary

Exposure

Health effects

Operational and aesthetic considerations

Analytical and treatment considerations

Distribution system

Application of the guidelines

International considerations

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Guidance document: Overview of the microbiological aspects of drinking water quality

ANNEX

Summary of the guidance document

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

CANADIAN ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION ACT, 1999

Publication of results of investigations for 46 substances specified on the Domestic Substances List (paragraph 68(b) of the Canadian Environmental Protection Act, 1999)

Public comment period

ANNEX I

Summary of the science approach document

ANNEX II

DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

FOOD AND DRUGS ACT

Notice of intent to consult on Health Canada's Order Amending the Fees in Respect of Drugs and Medical Devices Order

Purpose

Background

Proposed amendment to the Order

Rationale

Consultation

Contact

DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT

AERONAUTICS ACT

Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 22

Interim Order Respecting Certain Requirements for Civil Aviation Due to COVID-19, No. 22

Interpretation

Notification

Confirmation

Foreign Nationals

Health Check

COVID-19 Molecular Test — Flights to Canada

Temperature Screening — Flights to Canada

Temperature Screening — Aerodromes in Canada

Face Masks

Deplaning

Screening Authority

Designated Provisions

Repeal

SCHEDULE 1

SCHEDULE 2

DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORT

AERONAUTICS ACT

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

DEPARTMENT OF THE ENVIRONMENT
DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH

RADIOCOMMUNICATION ACT
TELECOMMUNICATIONS ACT